Monday, September 29, 2008

It is permissible to pay zakaat al-fitr in the form of flour

Q) Is it permissible for a person to pay zakaat al-fitr in the form of flour?

A) Praise be to Allaah.

Zakaat al-fitr must be given in form of the people’s staple food. Based on this, there is nothing wrong with giving it in the form of flour.

Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Mughni (2/357): It is permissible to give flour. This was stated by Ahmad. End quote.

Abu Dawood (618) narrated from Abu Sa’eed al-Khudri (may Allaah be pleased with him) that they used to give a saa’ of flour for zakaat al-fitr, but this is a da’eef (weak) hadeeth which was classed as such by Abu Dawood and others. See: Irwa’ al-Ghaleel (848).

The fact that the hadeeth was classed as da’eef does not mean that it is not permissible to give flour, because what is required, as stated abode, is to give what the people eat as their staple food. Hence Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in I’laam al-Muwaqqi’een (3/12) after confirming that zakaat al-fitr should be given in the form of the people’s staple food, whatever it is: Based on that, it is acceptable to give flour, even if it is not mentioned in the saheeh hadeeth. End quote.

The view that it is permissible to give flour for zakaat al-fitr is the view of Abu Haneefah and Ahmad (may Allaah have mercy on them), and it was the view favoured by Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah. Among contemporary scholars it was viewed as most correct by Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen.

The scholars – such as Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah in Majmoo’ al-Fataawa (25/69) and al-Mardaawi in al-Insaaf (3/180) – have drawn attention to the fact that flour must be given by weight, i.e. equivalent to the weight of a saa’ of grain, because a saa’ of flour may be less than a saa’ of grain, so if a person gives a saa’ of flour it may be less than a saa’ of grain, and that is not permissible.

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Sharh al-Mumti’ (6/179): If he gives a saa’ of wheat or barley flour, that is acceptable, but that is based on the idea that what counts with regard to flour is weight, because when grains are ground, they become less dense, so a saa’ of flour is nearly one-sixth less than a saa’ of grain. End quote.

And Allaah knows best.


Islam Q&A

Which is better: praying qiyaam or reading Qur’aan?

Q) Which is better if one stays up at night: praying or reading Qur’aan?

A) Praise be to Allaah.

Praying is better than reading Qur’aan outside of prayer. This was stated by the imams. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Adhere to righteousness even though you will not able to do all acts of virtue. Know that the best of your deeds is prayer and that no one maintains his wudoo’ except a believer.” But if a person feels more focused and ponders and understands better when he reads Qur’aan outside of prayer, then in his case it is better to do that which is more beneficial for him. End quote.


Majmoo’ Fataawa Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (23/62).

“There is no i’tikaaf except in the three mosque”

Q) I heard a hadeeth which says that i’tikaaf is only valid in al-Masjid al-Haraam (in Makkah), al-Masjid al-Nabawi (in Madeenah) and al-Masjid al-Aqsa (in Jerusalem). Is this hadeeth saheeh?

A) Praise be to Allaah.

Firstly:

The hadeeth to which the questioner is referring was narrated by al-Bayhaqi (4/315) from Hudhayfah, who said to ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Mas’ood (may Allaah be pleased with him): I saw some people who were observing i’tikaaf between your house and the house of Abu Moosa (i.e., in the mosque) and I know that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “There is no i’tikaaf except in the three mosques: al-Masjid al-Haraam…” ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Mas’ood said: Perhaps you forgot and they remembered, or you made a mistake and they were correct.

This was classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Silsilat al-Ahaadeeth al-Saheehah (2876).


Secondly: With regard to the ruling on this matter, the majority of scholars are of the view that it is not essential for i’tikaaf to be observed in one of the three mosques. They quoted as evidence for that the verse in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): “And do not have sexual relations with them (your wives) while you are in I‘tikaaf (i.e. confining oneself in a mosque for prayers and invocations leaving the worldly activities) in the mosques” [al-Baqarah 2:187] The word masaajid in this verse includes all mosques, except those of which the evidence states that i’tikaaf is not valid therein, such as mosques in which prayers are not held in congregation, if the person who is observing i’tikaaf is one of those on whom prayer in congregation is obligatory. See question no. ( 48985 ) Imam al-Bukhaari referred to the general meaning of the verse. He said:

Chapter: I’tikaaf during the last ten days (of Ramadaan) and i’tikaaf in any mosque. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): “And do not have sexual relations with them (your wives) while you are in I‘tikaaf (i.e. confining oneself in a mosque for prayers and invocations leaving the worldly activities) in the mosques. These are the limits (set) by Allaah, so approach them not. Thus does Allaah make clear His Ayaat (proofs, evidences, lessons, signs, revelations, verses, laws, legal and illegal things, Allaah’s set limits, orders, etc.) to mankind that they may become Al-Muttaqoon (the pious” [al-Baqarah 2:187].

The Muslims continued to observe i’tikaaf in the mosques in their countries, as was mentioned by al-Tahhaawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) in Mushkil al-Athaar, 4/205.

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about the ruling on i’tikaaf in the three mosques: al-Masjid al-Haraam (in Makkah), al-Masjid al-Nabawi (in Madeenah) and al-Masjid al-Aqsa (in Jerusalem).

He replied:

I’tikaaf in mosques other than the three mosques – al-Masjid al-Haraam (in Makkah), al-Masjid al-Nabawi (in Madeenah) and al-Masjid al-Aqsa (in Jerusalem) – is prescribed at the appropriate time, and is not limited to the three mosques. It may be observed in those mosques or in others. This is the view of the imams of the Muslims and the imams of the madhhabs that are followed, such as Imam Ahmad, Maalik, al-Shaafa’i, Abu Haneefah and others – may Allaah have mercy on them – because of the words of Allaah (interpretation of the meaning):

“And do not have sexual relations with them (your wives) while you are in I‘tikaaf (i.e. confining oneself in a mosque for prayers and invocations leaving the worldly activities) in the mosques. These are the limits (set) by Allaah, so approach them not. Thus does Allaah make clear His Ayaat (proofs, evidences, lessons, signs, revelations, verses, laws, legal and illegal things, Allaah’s set limits, orders, etc.) to mankind that they may become Al-Muttaqoon (the pious)”

[al-Baqarah 2:187]

And because the word masaajid (mosques) is general in meaning and includes all mosques throughout the world. This sentence appears at the end of the verses on fasting, the ruling of which applies to the whole ummah in all regions. So it is addressed to all those to whom the ruling on fasting is addressed. Hence these rulings end with the words (interpretation of the meaning):

“These are the limits (set) by Allaah, so approach them not. Thus does Allaah make clear His Ayaat (proofs, evidences, lessons, signs, revelations, verses, laws, legal and illegal things, Allaah’s set limits, orders, etc.) to mankind that they may become Al-Muttaqoon (the pious)”

[al-Baqarah 2:187]

It is extremely unlikely that Allaah would address the ummah with words that only include a very few of them.

With regard to the hadeeth of Hudhayfah ibn al-Yamaan (may Allaah be pleased with him): “There is no i’tikaaf except in the three mosques,” even if we assume that this hadeeth is free from faults, it is referring to the most perfect of i’tikaaf, i.e., that which is observed in the three mosques, because of their honoured status and superiority over others. This usage occurs frequently, where the negative is a statement that something is incomplete, not a denial of its validity. For example the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “There is no prayer in the presence of food,” etc. Undoubtedly the basic principle with regard to negative statements is to negate or deny, but if there is evidence to the contrary then that evidence should be followed, as in the hadeeth of Hudhayfah. This is if we assume that it is free of faults. And Allaah knows best.

Fataawa al-Siyaam (p. 493).

Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: How sound is the hadeeth “There is no i’tikaaf except in the three mosques”? If the hadeeth is saheeh, does that in fact mean that i’tikaaf can only be observed in the three mosques?

He replied:

I’tikaaf is valid in mosques other than the three mosques, but it is essential that the mosque in which i’tikaaf is observed is a mosque in which prayers are held in congregation. If no prayers are held in congregation there, then it is not valid to observe i’tikaaf there. But if a person has vowed to observe i’tikaaf in one of the three mosques then he is obliged to do so in fulfillment of his vow.

Majmoo’ Fataawa Ibn Baaz, 15/444.


Islam Q&A

He did ‘umrah during the day in Ramadaan and felt tired and exhausted so he broke his fast

Q) I have a brother who is 18 and a sister who is 17. They went one day in Ramadaan after Fajr and started to do ‘Umrah, but they felt so tired and exhausted when they were doing saa’i that they thought they were going to die, so they drank some water whilst they were doing saa’i. What should they do, because that was three years ago?

A) Praise be to Allaah.

If your brother and sister had done ‘umrah and they were travelling, there is nothing wrong with them breaking the fast, because it is permissible for the traveller to break the fast in Ramadaan, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“and whoever is ill or on a journey, the same number [of days which one did not observe Sawm (fasts) must be made up] from other days”

[al-Baqarah 2:185]

But if they were not travelling and they broke their fast because of the tiredness and exhaustion that you mention and because they were afraid they might die, there is no sin on them for that, because Allaah has granted a concession allowing the sick person not to fast, so whoever finds himself experiencing such hardship comes under the same ruling as one who is sick.

In either case (whether they were travelling or not), there is no blame or sin on them, but they have to make up a day to replace that day.

As for their ‘umrah, if they did all the obligatory and essential parts of it, then it is valid in sha Allaah.

And Allaah knows best.


Islam Q&A