Q) Is It possible for a woman to use the Tongue piercing ?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
It is permissible for a woman to pierce her ears even though that involves pain, for the purpose of wearing earrings, because Allaah has permitted women to adorn themselves with gold and silver and other kinds of jewellery, and women customarily wear earrings.
As for piercing the tongue in order to wear jewellery in it, this is something that is strange and off-putting to those of sound taste. Some kaafir and immoral women are well known for that in the west, and it is one of the causes for the spread of cancer of the tongue, gum disease and loss of teeth among those women, so it is not permissible to do it.
A study undertaken by researchers in Spain has shown that some people have resorted to piercing their tongues or other inner parts of their mouths in order to wear jewellery or studs, and this may lead to health complications affecting the mouth and teeth.
The researchers, from a University in Spain undertook a study of ninety-eight cases where the tongue or some inner part of the mouth was pierced, with the aim of evaluating the health complications that resulted from piercing these tissues.
The results of the study that were published in the Journal of Adolescent Health in November of this year indicate that in 23.5 percent of all cases there was wearing away of gum tissue around the teeth, especially in the eyeteeth of the lower jaw.
It also showed that 13.3 percent of cases suffered from tooth decay. The researchers pointed out that it is essential to warn people of the consequences of piercing any part of the mouth for the purpose of wearing studs, before they go ahead with that.
The American Association of Dental Health Workers also warn people of the consequences of having piercings done in different parts of the mouth, such as the tongue and lips, which may lead to loss of teeth because of the wearing away of gum tissue. In addition to that, piercing the tongue may, according to their report, lead to nerve loss in the affected area, and may even lead in some cases to stroke and blood infections.
We asked a well known university professor in oral surgery and dentistry, and he told us that he has seen that in Germany, where some immoral girls do that, and he said that this is one of the causes of cancer.
As it is proven that this action is harmful and causes these diseases, it is not permissible to do it, because Allaah has forbidden a person to do anything by means of which he harms himself.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
Monday, October 27, 2008
He acquired some wealth by means of haraam shares; how should he get rid of it?
Q) I bought shares in a company that is not permissible according to sharee’ah, and I want to take out my capital; how should I get rid of the profits?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Wealth that is acquired by investing in haraam shares or via riba-based banks, must be gotten rid of by spending it on various charitable causes. It may be given to the poor and needy, or spent on the general interests of the Muslims, such as building hospitals or schools, or paving roads, or it may be given to seekers of knowledge and the like.
The scholars of the Standing Committee for Issuing Fatwas were asked:
What is the ruling on buying shares in companies and banks? Is it permissible for a person who has bought shares in a company or bank to sell the shares after subscribing to a broker who buys and sells shares, and it is possible that they may be sold for more than the value for which the person bought them? What is the ruling on the interest that the shareholder takes every year on the value of the shares he holds?
They replied:
Buying shares in banks and companies that deal with riba is not permissible. If the shareholder wants to get rid of his riba-based shares, he may sell his shares at the current market value, and take his original capital only; he should spend the rest on charitable causes, and it is not permissible for him to take any of the interest or profits of his shares. But if the shares were in a company that does not deal in riba, then the profits are permissible. End quote.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (13/508).
It also says (14/299): The basic principle is that it is permissible to buy shares in any company if it does not deal in haraam things such as riba and so on, but if it deals in haraam things such as riba, then it is not permissible to buy shares in it. Based on this, if any of the shares mentioned are in a company that deals with riba or any other haraam things, then he must withdraw from it and get rid of the profits by spending them on the poor and needy. End quote.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Wealth that is acquired by investing in haraam shares or via riba-based banks, must be gotten rid of by spending it on various charitable causes. It may be given to the poor and needy, or spent on the general interests of the Muslims, such as building hospitals or schools, or paving roads, or it may be given to seekers of knowledge and the like.
The scholars of the Standing Committee for Issuing Fatwas were asked:
What is the ruling on buying shares in companies and banks? Is it permissible for a person who has bought shares in a company or bank to sell the shares after subscribing to a broker who buys and sells shares, and it is possible that they may be sold for more than the value for which the person bought them? What is the ruling on the interest that the shareholder takes every year on the value of the shares he holds?
They replied:
Buying shares in banks and companies that deal with riba is not permissible. If the shareholder wants to get rid of his riba-based shares, he may sell his shares at the current market value, and take his original capital only; he should spend the rest on charitable causes, and it is not permissible for him to take any of the interest or profits of his shares. But if the shares were in a company that does not deal in riba, then the profits are permissible. End quote.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (13/508).
It also says (14/299): The basic principle is that it is permissible to buy shares in any company if it does not deal in haraam things such as riba and so on, but if it deals in haraam things such as riba, then it is not permissible to buy shares in it. Based on this, if any of the shares mentioned are in a company that deals with riba or any other haraam things, then he must withdraw from it and get rid of the profits by spending them on the poor and needy. End quote.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
She has gold which she gave to her mother for safekeeping. Should she pay zakaah on it or not?
Q) I have two gold bracelets which weigh 85 grams. I left them with my mother for safekeeping, because the laws of my country do not allow me to take gold out of the country, and I used to wear them all the time. Now I live in another country. Should I pay zakaah on them?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
In question 19901 we quoted a fatwa from the Standing Committee on the zakaah of jewellery that is made to be worn. They said that the more correct of the two scholarly opinions is that jewellery that is made to be worn is subject to zakaah. It should be noted that it is the fact that the gold is made to be worn that makes it subject to zakaah; it does not have to be worn all the time.
Based on this, the fact that the gold has been left with your mother for safekeeping does not alter the fact that it has been made to be worn, and that it belongs to you, so you have to pay zakaah on it because it reaches the nisaab or threshold above which zakaah is due, because the nisaab for gold is 85 grams. See question no. 2795 and 64.
Based on this, this gold is subject to zakaah which you should pay each year, at a rate of 2.5 percent of its value.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
In question 19901 we quoted a fatwa from the Standing Committee on the zakaah of jewellery that is made to be worn. They said that the more correct of the two scholarly opinions is that jewellery that is made to be worn is subject to zakaah. It should be noted that it is the fact that the gold is made to be worn that makes it subject to zakaah; it does not have to be worn all the time.
Based on this, the fact that the gold has been left with your mother for safekeeping does not alter the fact that it has been made to be worn, and that it belongs to you, so you have to pay zakaah on it because it reaches the nisaab or threshold above which zakaah is due, because the nisaab for gold is 85 grams. See question no. 2795 and 64.
Based on this, this gold is subject to zakaah which you should pay each year, at a rate of 2.5 percent of its value.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
He became Muslim then he did something that is nullifies Islam, out of ignorance
Q) If a kaafir enters Islam then he does something that nullifies Islam because of ignorance, how should he be dealt with? Should he renew his Islam?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
He should be dealt with in the way that is better, and he should be told that this is something that nullifies Islam, but there is no need for him to renew his Islam, because this contrary action that he did is something that he was unaware of, and Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And We never punish until We have sent a Messenger (to give warning)”
[al-Isra’ 17:15]
“And never would We destroy the towns unless the people thereof are Zaalimoon (polytheists, wrongdoers, disbelievers in the Oneness of Allaah, oppressors and tyrants)”
[al-Qasas 28:59].
The one who is ignorant is not a wrongdoer, because he did not mean to sin, especially if he is new in Islam. End quote.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (1/32, 33)
A) Praise be to Allaah.
He should be dealt with in the way that is better, and he should be told that this is something that nullifies Islam, but there is no need for him to renew his Islam, because this contrary action that he did is something that he was unaware of, and Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And We never punish until We have sent a Messenger (to give warning)”
[al-Isra’ 17:15]
“And never would We destroy the towns unless the people thereof are Zaalimoon (polytheists, wrongdoers, disbelievers in the Oneness of Allaah, oppressors and tyrants)”
[al-Qasas 28:59].
The one who is ignorant is not a wrongdoer, because he did not mean to sin, especially if he is new in Islam. End quote.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (1/32, 33)
Ruling on going to someone who undoes spells
Q) If a person goes to the imam of a mosque who claims to undo witchcraft and does what he says, thinking that this will undo the witchcraft without knowing that this is haraam, has he committed a sin? What is the ruling on that?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If a person undoes spells or witchcraft, one of two scenarios must apply:
1-
He uses shar’i ruqyahs and ta’awwudhaat (prayers seeking refuge with Allaah) that were narrated from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), and permissible remedies. There is nothing wrong with this, rather it is mustahabb.
2-
He treats the spell by doing witchcraft which means drawing close to the jinn by offering sacrifices or doing other acts of worship. This is not permissible, because it is the handiwork of the shaytaan and is in fact major shirk, so we must beware of it. It is also not permissible to deal with it by asking sorcerers, fortune-tellers and charlatans or doing what they say. The Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) has warned against going to them, asking them questions and believing them. He (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever goes to a fortune-teller and asks him about something, his prayer will not be accepted for forty days.” Narrated by Muslim (4137).
And the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever goes to a soothsayer or fortune-teller and believes what he says has disbelieved in that which was revealed to Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him).” Narrated by Ahmad in al-Musnad (9171) and classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Jaami’, hadeeth no. 5939.
So it is not permissible to go to practitioners of witchcraft or ask them anything or believe them.
Abu Dawood narrated in his Sunan (3370) that Jaabir ibn ‘Abd-Allaah (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was asked about al-nushrah and he said: “It is the handiwork of the shaytaan.” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani.
Ibn al-Qayyim said in I’laam al-Muwaqqi’een (4/399): Nushrah means undoing witchcraft. It is of two types: undoing witchcraft by means of witchcraft, which is the handiwork of the shaytaan, because witchcraft is the handiwork of the shaytaan, and the one who engages in nushrah and the one for whom it is done draw close to him by means of what he likes, thus undoing the spell. The second type is undoing witchcraft by means of ruqyah, ta’awwudhaat, du’aa’s and permissible kinds of medicine. This is permissible, and is in fact mustahabb. End quote.
Thus you will know that if this imam is of the type who undoes witchcraft by means of haraam methods, then going to him is a sin, and may constitute kufr. What the one who has gone to him must do is repent from that, and Allaah accepts the repentance of the one who repents. If he did this out of ignorance then we hope that there is no sin on him, but he must give that up and resolve not to do it again in the future.
If he is one of the type who treat those who are bewitched by means of the Holy Qur’aan and du’aa’s narrated from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), then there is nothing wrong with going to him, and that is not a sin.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If a person undoes spells or witchcraft, one of two scenarios must apply:
1-
He uses shar’i ruqyahs and ta’awwudhaat (prayers seeking refuge with Allaah) that were narrated from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), and permissible remedies. There is nothing wrong with this, rather it is mustahabb.
2-
He treats the spell by doing witchcraft which means drawing close to the jinn by offering sacrifices or doing other acts of worship. This is not permissible, because it is the handiwork of the shaytaan and is in fact major shirk, so we must beware of it. It is also not permissible to deal with it by asking sorcerers, fortune-tellers and charlatans or doing what they say. The Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) has warned against going to them, asking them questions and believing them. He (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever goes to a fortune-teller and asks him about something, his prayer will not be accepted for forty days.” Narrated by Muslim (4137).
And the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever goes to a soothsayer or fortune-teller and believes what he says has disbelieved in that which was revealed to Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him).” Narrated by Ahmad in al-Musnad (9171) and classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Jaami’, hadeeth no. 5939.
So it is not permissible to go to practitioners of witchcraft or ask them anything or believe them.
Abu Dawood narrated in his Sunan (3370) that Jaabir ibn ‘Abd-Allaah (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was asked about al-nushrah and he said: “It is the handiwork of the shaytaan.” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani.
Ibn al-Qayyim said in I’laam al-Muwaqqi’een (4/399): Nushrah means undoing witchcraft. It is of two types: undoing witchcraft by means of witchcraft, which is the handiwork of the shaytaan, because witchcraft is the handiwork of the shaytaan, and the one who engages in nushrah and the one for whom it is done draw close to him by means of what he likes, thus undoing the spell. The second type is undoing witchcraft by means of ruqyah, ta’awwudhaat, du’aa’s and permissible kinds of medicine. This is permissible, and is in fact mustahabb. End quote.
Thus you will know that if this imam is of the type who undoes witchcraft by means of haraam methods, then going to him is a sin, and may constitute kufr. What the one who has gone to him must do is repent from that, and Allaah accepts the repentance of the one who repents. If he did this out of ignorance then we hope that there is no sin on him, but he must give that up and resolve not to do it again in the future.
If he is one of the type who treat those who are bewitched by means of the Holy Qur’aan and du’aa’s narrated from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), then there is nothing wrong with going to him, and that is not a sin.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
Is wearing an iron ring haraam for men?
Q) I heard that wearing an iron ring is haraam for men. I hope you can explain the matter, with evidence.
A) Praise be to Allaah.
It was narrated from ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Buraydah from his father (may Allaah be pleased with them both) that a man came to the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and he was wearing a ring of gold. He said: “Why do I detect the stench of idols on you?” So he threw it away. Then he came and he was wearing a ring of iron, and he said: “Why do I see you wearing the jewellery of the people of Hell?” So he threw it away. He said: O Messenger of Allaah, of what should I wear (a ring)? He said: “Wear (a ring) of silver, but no more than a mithqaal (a measure of weight).” Narrated by Abu Dawood, al-Tirmidhi and al-Nasaa’i. al-Tirmidhi said: This is a ghareeb hadeeh. It was narrated from Iyaas ibn al-Haarith ibn al-Mu’ayqeeb that his grandfather said: The ring of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was made of iron overlaid with silver. He said: I kept it sometimes, and Mu’ayqeeb was in charge of the ring of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). Narrated by Abu Dawood and al-Nasaa’i. In al-Saheehayn it is narrated from Sahl ibn Sa’d al-Ansaari (may Allaah be pleased with him) that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said to the one who proposed marriage to the woman who had offered herself in marriage to the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him): “Look for something (to give as a dowry), even if it is a ring of iron.” This indicates that it is permissible to wear a ring of iron, as is indicated by the hadeeth of Mu’ayqeeb. As for the hadeeth of Buraydah quoted above, there is some weakness in its isnaad. Thus it is clear that the more correct view is that it is not makrooh to wear a ring of iron. But wearing a ring of silver is better, because the ring of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was made of silver, as is proven in al-Saheehayn.
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. End quote.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah li’l-Buhooth al-‘Ilmiyyah wa’l-Ifta, 24/64.
A) Praise be to Allaah.
It was narrated from ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Buraydah from his father (may Allaah be pleased with them both) that a man came to the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and he was wearing a ring of gold. He said: “Why do I detect the stench of idols on you?” So he threw it away. Then he came and he was wearing a ring of iron, and he said: “Why do I see you wearing the jewellery of the people of Hell?” So he threw it away. He said: O Messenger of Allaah, of what should I wear (a ring)? He said: “Wear (a ring) of silver, but no more than a mithqaal (a measure of weight).” Narrated by Abu Dawood, al-Tirmidhi and al-Nasaa’i. al-Tirmidhi said: This is a ghareeb hadeeh. It was narrated from Iyaas ibn al-Haarith ibn al-Mu’ayqeeb that his grandfather said: The ring of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was made of iron overlaid with silver. He said: I kept it sometimes, and Mu’ayqeeb was in charge of the ring of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). Narrated by Abu Dawood and al-Nasaa’i. In al-Saheehayn it is narrated from Sahl ibn Sa’d al-Ansaari (may Allaah be pleased with him) that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said to the one who proposed marriage to the woman who had offered herself in marriage to the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him): “Look for something (to give as a dowry), even if it is a ring of iron.” This indicates that it is permissible to wear a ring of iron, as is indicated by the hadeeth of Mu’ayqeeb. As for the hadeeth of Buraydah quoted above, there is some weakness in its isnaad. Thus it is clear that the more correct view is that it is not makrooh to wear a ring of iron. But wearing a ring of silver is better, because the ring of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was made of silver, as is proven in al-Saheehayn.
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. End quote.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah li’l-Buhooth al-‘Ilmiyyah wa’l-Ifta, 24/64.
Eating the food of one whose wealth is haraam
Q) Some Muslims here in Britain accumulate their wealth from both halaal and haraam sources, because they are businessmen and some of the things they sell are alcohol and pork. They vary in the extent to which they do that. In some cases most of the person’s wealth comes from haraam sources and in some cases only a little of his earning is haraam. Is it permissible for us Muslims to mix with them and eat their food if they invite us? Is it permissible for us to accept their donations from this wealth for the mosque?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
You have to advise them and warn them of the evil consequences of dealing in haraam things and earning money from haraam sources. You should cooperate with your brothers in reminding them and warning them of the punishment of Allaah and how severely He deals with those who disobey Him. You should tell them that the pleasures of this world are insignificant, and that the Hereafter is better and more lasting. If they respond, then praise be to Allaah, and they will become thereby your brothers in Islam. Then you should advise them to restore the rights of those whom they have wronged, if they know who they are, and to follow up bad deeds with good, so that Allaah may accept their repentance and turn their bad deeds into good. In that case it will be permissible for you to mix with them as brothers and to eat their food, and to accept their donations for building and furnishing the mosque, etc, because by repenting and restoring people’s rights it is possible that they may be forgiven for what they did in the past, because Allaah says concerning those who deal in riba [usury] (interpretation of the meaning):
“So whosoever receives an admonition from his Lord and stops consuming Ribaa, shall not be punished for the past”
[al-Baqarah 2:275]
Secondly:
If they refuse to heed the advice and reminders, and they persist in their haraam actions, then you have to forsake them for the sake of Allaah, and not accept their invitations or accept their donations, as a rebuke to them, and in the hope that they will give up their evil ways.
And Allaah is the Source of strength.
Al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah li’l-Buhooth al-‘Ilmiyyah wa’l-Ifta’, 16/181.
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
You have to advise them and warn them of the evil consequences of dealing in haraam things and earning money from haraam sources. You should cooperate with your brothers in reminding them and warning them of the punishment of Allaah and how severely He deals with those who disobey Him. You should tell them that the pleasures of this world are insignificant, and that the Hereafter is better and more lasting. If they respond, then praise be to Allaah, and they will become thereby your brothers in Islam. Then you should advise them to restore the rights of those whom they have wronged, if they know who they are, and to follow up bad deeds with good, so that Allaah may accept their repentance and turn their bad deeds into good. In that case it will be permissible for you to mix with them as brothers and to eat their food, and to accept their donations for building and furnishing the mosque, etc, because by repenting and restoring people’s rights it is possible that they may be forgiven for what they did in the past, because Allaah says concerning those who deal in riba [usury] (interpretation of the meaning):
“So whosoever receives an admonition from his Lord and stops consuming Ribaa, shall not be punished for the past”
[al-Baqarah 2:275]
Secondly:
If they refuse to heed the advice and reminders, and they persist in their haraam actions, then you have to forsake them for the sake of Allaah, and not accept their invitations or accept their donations, as a rebuke to them, and in the hope that they will give up their evil ways.
And Allaah is the Source of strength.
Al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah li’l-Buhooth al-‘Ilmiyyah wa’l-Ifta’, 16/181.
Wednesday, October 22, 2008
The right side of the row is better than the left
Q) Which is better, to pray on the right side of the imam or on his left? Which is better, the right side of the row or the left?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If only one man is praying with the imam, then he should stand to the imam’s right, and not on his left, because of the hadeeth of Ibn ‘Abbaas (may Allaah be pleased with him), who stayed overnight with his maternal aunt Maymoonah (may Allaah be pleased with her); the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) got up to pray qiyaam al-layl, and Ibn ‘Abbaas stood on his left, and he reached behind him and made him stand on his right. This indicates that if only one person is praying behind the imam, he should stand on the right and not on the left.
But if more than one person is praying behind the imam, then they should stand behind him, and the right side of the row is better than the left. This applies if the two sides of the row are similar, but if the right side of the row is clearly stretching further than the left, then being on the left and closer to the imam is better.
Based on this, the people praying behind the imam should not all be on the imam’s right to the extent that there is no one on his left except one or two men. That is because what is prescribed in the case of three men is that the imam should be between them, with one man on his right and one on his left; they should not all be on his right. This indicates that the imam should be in the middle of the row or thereabouts.
To sum up: the right is better if the sides are equal or close to that. But if the right hand side stretches further, then the left is better, because it is closer to the imam. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (12/184)
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If only one man is praying with the imam, then he should stand to the imam’s right, and not on his left, because of the hadeeth of Ibn ‘Abbaas (may Allaah be pleased with him), who stayed overnight with his maternal aunt Maymoonah (may Allaah be pleased with her); the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) got up to pray qiyaam al-layl, and Ibn ‘Abbaas stood on his left, and he reached behind him and made him stand on his right. This indicates that if only one person is praying behind the imam, he should stand on the right and not on the left.
But if more than one person is praying behind the imam, then they should stand behind him, and the right side of the row is better than the left. This applies if the two sides of the row are similar, but if the right side of the row is clearly stretching further than the left, then being on the left and closer to the imam is better.
Based on this, the people praying behind the imam should not all be on the imam’s right to the extent that there is no one on his left except one or two men. That is because what is prescribed in the case of three men is that the imam should be between them, with one man on his right and one on his left; they should not all be on his right. This indicates that the imam should be in the middle of the row or thereabouts.
To sum up: the right is better if the sides are equal or close to that. But if the right hand side stretches further, then the left is better, because it is closer to the imam. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (12/184)
Saying du’aa’ al-istikhaarah without praying
Q) Is it permissible to recite the du’aa’ of istikhaarah without praying two rak’ah beforehand, because one is not at home, for example?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Istikhaarah means asking Allaah to help you choose the better of two things and to divert the worse of them. Praying two rak’ahs beforehand is only prescribed before the du’aa’ to make it more likely to receive a response, and to help bring about proper presence of mind and make the du’aa’ more likely to be accepted.
Ibn Abi Jamrah said, as narrated in Fath al-Baari (11/186):
The wisdom behind putting the prayer before the du’aa’ is that the aim of istikhaarah is combine the best of this world and the Hereafter. So he needs an introduction before presenting his case before Allaah, as it were. And there is nothing better for that than prayer, because it involves venerating Allaah, praising Him and expressing one’s need for Him now and always. End quote.
The istikhaarah that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) taught us includes praying two rak’ahs then reciting the du’aa’ after that.
If a Muslim cannot offer the prayer (two rak’ahs) for some reason, there is nothing wrong with calling upon Allaah and asking Him to make easy for him the better of the two options, without offering the prayer.
Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Adhkaar (p. 120):
If he cannot offer the prayer then he may recite the du’aa’ of istikhaarah. End quote.
These words of al-Nawawi were quoted by a number of scholars from different madhhabs, who quoted them as evidence.
See: Haashiyat Radd al-Muhtaar (2/27); al-Fawaakih al-Dawaani (1/35); Sharh Mukhtasar Khaleel by al-Kharashi (1/37); Asna’l-Mataalib (1/205).
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Istikhaarah means asking Allaah to help you choose the better of two things and to divert the worse of them. Praying two rak’ahs beforehand is only prescribed before the du’aa’ to make it more likely to receive a response, and to help bring about proper presence of mind and make the du’aa’ more likely to be accepted.
Ibn Abi Jamrah said, as narrated in Fath al-Baari (11/186):
The wisdom behind putting the prayer before the du’aa’ is that the aim of istikhaarah is combine the best of this world and the Hereafter. So he needs an introduction before presenting his case before Allaah, as it were. And there is nothing better for that than prayer, because it involves venerating Allaah, praising Him and expressing one’s need for Him now and always. End quote.
The istikhaarah that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) taught us includes praying two rak’ahs then reciting the du’aa’ after that.
If a Muslim cannot offer the prayer (two rak’ahs) for some reason, there is nothing wrong with calling upon Allaah and asking Him to make easy for him the better of the two options, without offering the prayer.
Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Adhkaar (p. 120):
If he cannot offer the prayer then he may recite the du’aa’ of istikhaarah. End quote.
These words of al-Nawawi were quoted by a number of scholars from different madhhabs, who quoted them as evidence.
See: Haashiyat Radd al-Muhtaar (2/27); al-Fawaakih al-Dawaani (1/35); Sharh Mukhtasar Khaleel by al-Kharashi (1/37); Asna’l-Mataalib (1/205).
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
Her brother is in jail and her paternal uncles are in another country. Who can be her wali?
Q) I am a revert but with Muslim family in other countries (i.e. my paternal uncles). My father is deceased which is why my brother and I were raised no Muslim. My brother is also a revert now but is in jail. I live with my mom and she is unmarried and is Christian. Her father (a nonmuslim) is the only mahram I have in this country besides my brother who is in jail. In this situation, who is my wali? Would it be the imam at the masjid I attend, or would it be one of my paternal uncles? Or is it still my brother?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
We praise Allaah for having guided you to Islam, and we ask Him to increase you in faith, knowledge, steadfastness and guidance.
Secondly:
The woman’s wali is her father, then his father (i.e., her grandfather), then her son, then his son (i.e., her grandson) [this applies if she has sons], then her full brother, then her half-brother through her father only, then the sons of her full brother, then the sons of her half-brother through her father, then her paternal uncles, then their sons, then the father’s paternal uncles, then the ruler. Al-Mughni (9/355).
The grandfather who has the right of guardianship is the grandfather on the father’s side. The mother’s father cannot be a wali. Based on this, your wali is your Muslim brother; the fact that he is in jail does not prevent him from being a wali. It is possible to contact him and visit him, and at that time he can delegate someone to do the marriage contract for you on his behalf. If that is not possible, then your wali is your paternal uncle, and it does not matter that he is in another country. He can delegate someone to do the marriage contract for you, or the marriage contract can be done by modern means such as the telephone and internet.
See also the answer to question no. 2201 and 105531.
We ask Allaah to bless you with a righteous husband and righteous offspring.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
We praise Allaah for having guided you to Islam, and we ask Him to increase you in faith, knowledge, steadfastness and guidance.
Secondly:
The woman’s wali is her father, then his father (i.e., her grandfather), then her son, then his son (i.e., her grandson) [this applies if she has sons], then her full brother, then her half-brother through her father only, then the sons of her full brother, then the sons of her half-brother through her father, then her paternal uncles, then their sons, then the father’s paternal uncles, then the ruler. Al-Mughni (9/355).
The grandfather who has the right of guardianship is the grandfather on the father’s side. The mother’s father cannot be a wali. Based on this, your wali is your Muslim brother; the fact that he is in jail does not prevent him from being a wali. It is possible to contact him and visit him, and at that time he can delegate someone to do the marriage contract for you on his behalf. If that is not possible, then your wali is your paternal uncle, and it does not matter that he is in another country. He can delegate someone to do the marriage contract for you, or the marriage contract can be done by modern means such as the telephone and internet.
See also the answer to question no. 2201 and 105531.
We ask Allaah to bless you with a righteous husband and righteous offspring.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
He has been given money to help him get married – should he accept it?
Q) One of my relatives sent me a large amount of money on the occasion of my marriage, with the intention of helping me. Should I accept it or is it better to be proud and be content with what I have?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
There is nothing wrong with accepting it if you were not hoping for it, and reciprocating in a suitable manner or making du’aa’ for him, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever does you a favour, then respond in kind, and if you cannot find anything to give him, then make du’aa’ for him (and keep doing so) until you think that you have done enough.”
Narrated by Abu Dawood and al-Nasaa’i.
And Allaah is the Source of strength.
Al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah li’l-Buhooth al-‘Ilmiyyah wa’l-Ifta, 16/171
A) Praise be to Allaah.
There is nothing wrong with accepting it if you were not hoping for it, and reciprocating in a suitable manner or making du’aa’ for him, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever does you a favour, then respond in kind, and if you cannot find anything to give him, then make du’aa’ for him (and keep doing so) until you think that you have done enough.”
Narrated by Abu Dawood and al-Nasaa’i.
And Allaah is the Source of strength.
Al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah li’l-Buhooth al-‘Ilmiyyah wa’l-Ifta, 16/171
Should he obey his father and give up his studies in order to work in business?
Q) A son registered in a college to study, but his father does not approve of that, and he wants his son to work in business and not study. Does the son have the right to disobey his father or should he obey him and give up his studies?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
The son should combine two good deeds, by both seeking knowledge and helping his father in his business. If his father insists on forcing his son to give up seeking knowledge and work in business, then he may not obey him in that and this is not considered to be disobedience towards his father.
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. End quote.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah li’l-Buhooth al-‘Ilmiyyah wa’l-Ifta’ (25/139).
A) Praise be to Allaah.
The son should combine two good deeds, by both seeking knowledge and helping his father in his business. If his father insists on forcing his son to give up seeking knowledge and work in business, then he may not obey him in that and this is not considered to be disobedience towards his father.
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. End quote.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah li’l-Buhooth al-‘Ilmiyyah wa’l-Ifta’ (25/139).
If he says to his wife “Your bed is haraam for me”
Q) What is the ruling on a husband who says to his wife, “Your bed is haraam for me” in order to deter her from doing something?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
This wording may be understand as referring to zihaar (a jaahili form of divorce), or it may be understood as referring to talaaq (divorce), or it may be understood as an oath.
That depends on the intention of the husband who spoke these words, because he knows what he intended when he said that.
If what he meant was that his wife was haraam for him, like his mother’s back, then this is zihaar, and it is not permissible for him to approach his wife until he has offered the expiation for zihaar, which Allaah has mentioned in the verse where He said (interpretation of the meaning):
“And those who make unlawful to them (their wives) by Zihaar and wish to free themselves from what they uttered, (the penalty) in that case is the freeing of a slave before they touch each other. That is an admonition to you (so that you may not repeat such an ill thing). And Allaah is All‑Aware of what you do.
4. And he who finds not (the money for freeing a slave) must fast two successive months before they both touch each other. And he who is unable to do so, should feed sixty Masaakeen (poor). That is in order that you may have perfect faith in Allaah and His Messenger. These are the limits set by Allaah. And for disbelievers, there is a painful torment”
[al-Mujaadilah 58:3,4]
If he intended by these words that divorce (talaaq) should take place, then it counts as a divorce, If it is the first or second talaaq then he may take his wife back so long as her ‘iddah has not yet ended. If it is a third talaaq then she is not permissible for him until she has been married to another husband.
If he intended to prevent himself from sleeping in her bed, and he did not intend zihaar or talaaq, then it is an oath. If he breaks it, he must offer kafaarat yameen (expiation for breaking an oath), which Allaah mentions in the verse where He says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Allaah will not punish you for what is unintentional in your oaths, but He will punish you for your deliberate oaths; for its expiation (a deliberate oath) feed ten Masaakeen (poor persons), on a scale of the average of that with which you feed your own families, or clothe them or manumit a slave. But whosoever cannot afford (that), then he should fast for three days. That is the expiation for the oaths when you have sworn. And protect your oaths (i.e. do not swear much). Thus Allaah makes clear to you His Ayaat (proofs, evidences, verses, lessons, signs, revelations, etc.) that you may be grateful”
[al-Maa’idah 5:89].
See the answer to question no. 45676 for detail on the rulings on the expiation for breaking an oath.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
This wording may be understand as referring to zihaar (a jaahili form of divorce), or it may be understood as referring to talaaq (divorce), or it may be understood as an oath.
That depends on the intention of the husband who spoke these words, because he knows what he intended when he said that.
If what he meant was that his wife was haraam for him, like his mother’s back, then this is zihaar, and it is not permissible for him to approach his wife until he has offered the expiation for zihaar, which Allaah has mentioned in the verse where He said (interpretation of the meaning):
“And those who make unlawful to them (their wives) by Zihaar and wish to free themselves from what they uttered, (the penalty) in that case is the freeing of a slave before they touch each other. That is an admonition to you (so that you may not repeat such an ill thing). And Allaah is All‑Aware of what you do.
4. And he who finds not (the money for freeing a slave) must fast two successive months before they both touch each other. And he who is unable to do so, should feed sixty Masaakeen (poor). That is in order that you may have perfect faith in Allaah and His Messenger. These are the limits set by Allaah. And for disbelievers, there is a painful torment”
[al-Mujaadilah 58:3,4]
If he intended by these words that divorce (talaaq) should take place, then it counts as a divorce, If it is the first or second talaaq then he may take his wife back so long as her ‘iddah has not yet ended. If it is a third talaaq then she is not permissible for him until she has been married to another husband.
If he intended to prevent himself from sleeping in her bed, and he did not intend zihaar or talaaq, then it is an oath. If he breaks it, he must offer kafaarat yameen (expiation for breaking an oath), which Allaah mentions in the verse where He says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Allaah will not punish you for what is unintentional in your oaths, but He will punish you for your deliberate oaths; for its expiation (a deliberate oath) feed ten Masaakeen (poor persons), on a scale of the average of that with which you feed your own families, or clothe them or manumit a slave. But whosoever cannot afford (that), then he should fast for three days. That is the expiation for the oaths when you have sworn. And protect your oaths (i.e. do not swear much). Thus Allaah makes clear to you His Ayaat (proofs, evidences, verses, lessons, signs, revelations, etc.) that you may be grateful”
[al-Maa’idah 5:89].
See the answer to question no. 45676 for detail on the rulings on the expiation for breaking an oath.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
He became Muslim at the time of prayer; should he make up what came before it?
Q) If a person becomes Muslim at the time of prayer, does he have to make up what came before it?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
He does not have to make up what came before it, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Say to those who have disbelieved, if they cease (from disbelief), their past will be forgiven”
[al-Anfaal 8:38].
i.e., if they give up their kufr and become Muslim, then Allaah will forgive them their previous sins, whether these were sins of neglecting obligatory duties or doing haraam acts. But he must offer the prayer at the time of which he became Muslim, if there remained enough time to do one rak’ah or more, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever catches up with a rak’ah of the prayer has caught up with the prayer.”
As for the prayers that came before, he does not have to make them up, such as if he became Muslim after ‘Asr, he has to make up ‘Asr, but he does not have to make up Zuhr, because the time for it had ended. End quote.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him).
Al-Ijaabaat ‘ala As’ilat al-Jaaliyaat (1/5,6).
A) Praise be to Allaah.
He does not have to make up what came before it, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Say to those who have disbelieved, if they cease (from disbelief), their past will be forgiven”
[al-Anfaal 8:38].
i.e., if they give up their kufr and become Muslim, then Allaah will forgive them their previous sins, whether these were sins of neglecting obligatory duties or doing haraam acts. But he must offer the prayer at the time of which he became Muslim, if there remained enough time to do one rak’ah or more, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever catches up with a rak’ah of the prayer has caught up with the prayer.”
As for the prayers that came before, he does not have to make them up, such as if he became Muslim after ‘Asr, he has to make up ‘Asr, but he does not have to make up Zuhr, because the time for it had ended. End quote.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him).
Al-Ijaabaat ‘ala As’ilat al-Jaaliyaat (1/5,6).
Why did Allaah create the heavens and the earth in six days when He is able to have created it in less time?
Q) If Allah intends a thing, his only word is "BE" and it is. can you please explain why he took 6 days to create the heavens and earth?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
One of the firm beliefs held by people of deep faith and complete Tawheed is that the Lord, may He be exalted, is able to do all things, and His power is without limits. He has absolute power, perfect will and ultimate control of all affairs. If He wills a thing, it happens as He wills it at the time when He wills it, and in the manner that He wills.
There are many definitive texts in the Book of our Lord and in the Sunnah of His Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) which affirm this and state it clearly, with no ambiguity. It is sufficient here for us to quote some of the verses that indicate this, such as the verses (interpretation of the meaning):
“The Originator of the heavens and the earth. When He decrees a matter, He only says to it : ‘Be!’ — and it is”
[al-Baqarah 2:117]
Al-Haafz Ibn Katheer said in his commentary on this verse (Tafseer 1/175): “Here Allaah explains the completeness of His power and the greatness of His authority, and that if He wills and decrees something, He simply says to it, ‘Be!’ – just once – and it is, i.e., it comes into existence as He willed it. This is like the verse in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
‘Verily, His Command, when He intends a thing, is only that He says to it, “Be!” — and it is!’
[Ya-Seen 36:82].”
And Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“When He has decreed something, He says to it only: ‘Be!’ — and it is”
[Aal ‘Imraan 3:47]
“It is He Who gives life and causes death. And when He decides upon a thing He says to it only: ‘Be’ — and it is”
[Ghaafir 40:68]
“And Our Commandment is but one as the twinkling of an eye”
[al-Qamar 54:50]
Al-Haafiz Ibn Katheer said in his commentary on this verse (4/261): “Here Allaah tells us how His will is executed in His creation, and how His decree is implemented. ‘And Our Commandment is but one’ means, We only issue a command once, and We do not need to repeat it a second time, and what We command happens in the twinkling of an eye, it is not delayed for an instant. How well the poet put it:
‘When Allaah wills something, all He says to it is “Be!”, once, and it is.’”
And there are many other verses which speak of this matter and explain it.
Once this is established, then why did Allaah create the heavens and the earth in six days?
Firstly:
It is narrated in more than one verse of the Book of our Lord that Allaah created the heavens and the earth in six days. For example, Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Indeed, your Lord is Allaah, Who created the heavens and the earth in Six Days, and then He rose over (Istawa) the Throne (really in a manner that suits His Majesty)”
[al-A’raaf 7:54]
Secondly:
There is nothing that Allaah does but there is great wisdom in it. This is one of the meanings of Allaah’s name al-Hakeem (The Most Wise). Allaah may or may not show this wisdom to us, and those who have deep knowledge may understand it, to the exclusion of others.
But the fact that we may not know or understand this wisdom should not make us deny it or object to the rulings of Allaah, or try to ask too much about this wisdom that Allaah has hidden from us. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“He [Allaah] cannot be questioned as to what He does, while they will be questioned”
[al-Anbiya’ 21:23]
Some scholars have attempted to explain the reason why the heavens and the earth were created in six days:
1 – Imam al-Qurtubi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Jaami’ li Ahkaam al-Qur’aan, commenting on al-A’raaf 7:54 (4/7/140):
“Allaah mentions this period – i.e. six days – although if He had wanted to create it in an instant, He could have done so, because He is Able to say to it ‘Be!’ and is. But He wanted to:
- Teach His slaves kindness and deliberation in their affairs.
- Manifest His power to the angels step by step.
- And there is another reason: He wanted to create it in six days because Allaah has decreed a course for everything, for which reason He He delays the punishment for the sinners, because everything has an appointed time with Him.”
2 – Ibn al-Jawzi said in his tafseer called Zaad al-Maseer (3/162), commenting on the verse in Soorat al-A’raaf:
“If it is said, why did He not create it in an instant when He is Able to do so? There are five answers to this question:
(i) He wanted to create something each day to show His power to the angels and those who witnessed it. This was suggested by Ibn al-Anbaari.
(ii) He was preparing things for Adam and his offspring before Adam existed, to emphasize Adam’s high standing before the angels.
(iii) Doing things in a short time is more indicative of power, and deliberation is more indicative of wisdom. Allaah wanted to manifest His wisdom in that, just as He manifested His power when He said, ‘ “Be!” And it is.’
(iv) He taught deliberation to His slaves, because if the One Who does not make mistakes created the universe in a deliberate manner, then it is more appropriate for those who are vulnerable to making mistakes to do things in a deliberate manner.
(v) Creation was accomplished step by step, lest anyone think that this happened as the result of an accident of nature.
3 – al-Qaadi Abu’l-Sa’ood said in his commentary on the verse in al-A’raaf (3/232):
“The fact that Allaah created things in stages although He is able to have created everything in one go is indicative of the Divine Will and is a sign of His power for those who understand, and it encourages deliberation in all things.”
And he said in his commentary on al-Furqaan 25:59 (6/226):
“The One Who created these great stars in this precise configuration in stages, even though He is able to create them in one go, (that was) for a great reason and sublime purpose, which human minds cannot comprehend fully.”
Based on the above, it is clear that Allaah has absolute power, ultimate will and perfect control, and He has wise reasons for everything that He creates, which no one knows but He, may He be exalted. Now you can understand some of the reasons why Allaah created the heavens and the earth in six days when He is able to have created them simply by saying “Be!”.
May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon his family and companions.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
One of the firm beliefs held by people of deep faith and complete Tawheed is that the Lord, may He be exalted, is able to do all things, and His power is without limits. He has absolute power, perfect will and ultimate control of all affairs. If He wills a thing, it happens as He wills it at the time when He wills it, and in the manner that He wills.
There are many definitive texts in the Book of our Lord and in the Sunnah of His Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) which affirm this and state it clearly, with no ambiguity. It is sufficient here for us to quote some of the verses that indicate this, such as the verses (interpretation of the meaning):
“The Originator of the heavens and the earth. When He decrees a matter, He only says to it : ‘Be!’ — and it is”
[al-Baqarah 2:117]
Al-Haafz Ibn Katheer said in his commentary on this verse (Tafseer 1/175): “Here Allaah explains the completeness of His power and the greatness of His authority, and that if He wills and decrees something, He simply says to it, ‘Be!’ – just once – and it is, i.e., it comes into existence as He willed it. This is like the verse in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
‘Verily, His Command, when He intends a thing, is only that He says to it, “Be!” — and it is!’
[Ya-Seen 36:82].”
And Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“When He has decreed something, He says to it only: ‘Be!’ — and it is”
[Aal ‘Imraan 3:47]
“It is He Who gives life and causes death. And when He decides upon a thing He says to it only: ‘Be’ — and it is”
[Ghaafir 40:68]
“And Our Commandment is but one as the twinkling of an eye”
[al-Qamar 54:50]
Al-Haafiz Ibn Katheer said in his commentary on this verse (4/261): “Here Allaah tells us how His will is executed in His creation, and how His decree is implemented. ‘And Our Commandment is but one’ means, We only issue a command once, and We do not need to repeat it a second time, and what We command happens in the twinkling of an eye, it is not delayed for an instant. How well the poet put it:
‘When Allaah wills something, all He says to it is “Be!”, once, and it is.’”
And there are many other verses which speak of this matter and explain it.
Once this is established, then why did Allaah create the heavens and the earth in six days?
Firstly:
It is narrated in more than one verse of the Book of our Lord that Allaah created the heavens and the earth in six days. For example, Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Indeed, your Lord is Allaah, Who created the heavens and the earth in Six Days, and then He rose over (Istawa) the Throne (really in a manner that suits His Majesty)”
[al-A’raaf 7:54]
Secondly:
There is nothing that Allaah does but there is great wisdom in it. This is one of the meanings of Allaah’s name al-Hakeem (The Most Wise). Allaah may or may not show this wisdom to us, and those who have deep knowledge may understand it, to the exclusion of others.
But the fact that we may not know or understand this wisdom should not make us deny it or object to the rulings of Allaah, or try to ask too much about this wisdom that Allaah has hidden from us. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“He [Allaah] cannot be questioned as to what He does, while they will be questioned”
[al-Anbiya’ 21:23]
Some scholars have attempted to explain the reason why the heavens and the earth were created in six days:
1 – Imam al-Qurtubi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Jaami’ li Ahkaam al-Qur’aan, commenting on al-A’raaf 7:54 (4/7/140):
“Allaah mentions this period – i.e. six days – although if He had wanted to create it in an instant, He could have done so, because He is Able to say to it ‘Be!’ and is. But He wanted to:
- Teach His slaves kindness and deliberation in their affairs.
- Manifest His power to the angels step by step.
- And there is another reason: He wanted to create it in six days because Allaah has decreed a course for everything, for which reason He He delays the punishment for the sinners, because everything has an appointed time with Him.”
2 – Ibn al-Jawzi said in his tafseer called Zaad al-Maseer (3/162), commenting on the verse in Soorat al-A’raaf:
“If it is said, why did He not create it in an instant when He is Able to do so? There are five answers to this question:
(i) He wanted to create something each day to show His power to the angels and those who witnessed it. This was suggested by Ibn al-Anbaari.
(ii) He was preparing things for Adam and his offspring before Adam existed, to emphasize Adam’s high standing before the angels.
(iii) Doing things in a short time is more indicative of power, and deliberation is more indicative of wisdom. Allaah wanted to manifest His wisdom in that, just as He manifested His power when He said, ‘ “Be!” And it is.’
(iv) He taught deliberation to His slaves, because if the One Who does not make mistakes created the universe in a deliberate manner, then it is more appropriate for those who are vulnerable to making mistakes to do things in a deliberate manner.
(v) Creation was accomplished step by step, lest anyone think that this happened as the result of an accident of nature.
3 – al-Qaadi Abu’l-Sa’ood said in his commentary on the verse in al-A’raaf (3/232):
“The fact that Allaah created things in stages although He is able to have created everything in one go is indicative of the Divine Will and is a sign of His power for those who understand, and it encourages deliberation in all things.”
And he said in his commentary on al-Furqaan 25:59 (6/226):
“The One Who created these great stars in this precise configuration in stages, even though He is able to create them in one go, (that was) for a great reason and sublime purpose, which human minds cannot comprehend fully.”
Based on the above, it is clear that Allaah has absolute power, ultimate will and perfect control, and He has wise reasons for everything that He creates, which no one knows but He, may He be exalted. Now you can understand some of the reasons why Allaah created the heavens and the earth in six days when He is able to have created them simply by saying “Be!”.
May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon his family and companions.
Islam Q&A
Thursday, October 16, 2008
The virtue of fasting six days of Shawwaal
Q) What is the ruling on fasting six days of Shawwaal? Is it waajib (obligatory)?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Fasting six days of Shawwaal after the obligatory fast of Ramadaan is Sunnah Mustahabbah, not waajib. It is recommended for the Muslim to fast six days of Shawwaal, and in this there is great virtue and an immense reward. Whoever fasts these six days will have recorded for him a reward as if he had fasted a whole year, as was reported in a saheeh hadeeth from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). Abu Ayyoob (may Allaah be pleased with him) reported that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever fasts Ramadaan and follows it with six days of Shawwaal, it will be as if he fasted for a lifetime.” (Narrated by Muslim, Abu Dawood, al-Tirmidhi, al-Nisaa’i and Ibn Maajah).
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) explained this when he said: “Whoever fasts for six days after (Eid) al-Fitr has completed the year: (whoever does a good deed (hasanah) will have ten hasanah like it).” According to another report: “Allaah has made for each hasanah ten like it, so a month is like fasting ten months, and fasting six days completes the year.” (al-Nisaa’i and Ibn Maajah. See also Saheeh al-Targheeb wa’l-Tarheeb, 1/421). It was also narrated by Ibn Khuzaymah with the wording: “Fasting for the month of Ramadaan brings the reward of ten like it, and fasting for six days brings the reward of two months, and that is the fasting of the whole year.”
The Hanbali and Shaafa’i fuqaha’ explained that fasting six days of Shawwaal after fasting Ramadaan makes it as if one has fasted for an entire year of obligatory fasts, because the multiplication of the reward applies even to naafil fasts, because each hasanah brings the reward of ten like it.
Another of the important benefits of fasting six days of Shawwaal is that is makes up for any shortfall in a person's obligatory Ramadaan fasts, because no one is free of shortcomings or sins that have a negative effect on his fasting. On the Day of Resurrection, some of his naafil deeds will be taken to make up the shortcomings in his obligatory deeds, as the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “The first thing for which people will be brought to account on the Day of Resurrection will be their salaah (prayer). Our Lord, may He be glorified and exalted, will say to His angels – although He knows best – ‘Look at the salaah of My slave, whether it is complete or incomplete.’ If it is perfect, it will be recorded as perfect, and if something is lacking, He will say, ‘Look and see whether My slave did any voluntary (naafil) prayers.’ If he did some voluntary prayers, [Allaah] will say, Complete the obligatory actions of My slave from his voluntary actions.’ Then all his actions will be dealt with in a similar manner.” (Narrated by Abu Dawood).
And Allaah knows best.
Sheikh Muhammed Salih Al-Munajjid
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Fasting six days of Shawwaal after the obligatory fast of Ramadaan is Sunnah Mustahabbah, not waajib. It is recommended for the Muslim to fast six days of Shawwaal, and in this there is great virtue and an immense reward. Whoever fasts these six days will have recorded for him a reward as if he had fasted a whole year, as was reported in a saheeh hadeeth from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). Abu Ayyoob (may Allaah be pleased with him) reported that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever fasts Ramadaan and follows it with six days of Shawwaal, it will be as if he fasted for a lifetime.” (Narrated by Muslim, Abu Dawood, al-Tirmidhi, al-Nisaa’i and Ibn Maajah).
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) explained this when he said: “Whoever fasts for six days after (Eid) al-Fitr has completed the year: (whoever does a good deed (hasanah) will have ten hasanah like it).” According to another report: “Allaah has made for each hasanah ten like it, so a month is like fasting ten months, and fasting six days completes the year.” (al-Nisaa’i and Ibn Maajah. See also Saheeh al-Targheeb wa’l-Tarheeb, 1/421). It was also narrated by Ibn Khuzaymah with the wording: “Fasting for the month of Ramadaan brings the reward of ten like it, and fasting for six days brings the reward of two months, and that is the fasting of the whole year.”
The Hanbali and Shaafa’i fuqaha’ explained that fasting six days of Shawwaal after fasting Ramadaan makes it as if one has fasted for an entire year of obligatory fasts, because the multiplication of the reward applies even to naafil fasts, because each hasanah brings the reward of ten like it.
Another of the important benefits of fasting six days of Shawwaal is that is makes up for any shortfall in a person's obligatory Ramadaan fasts, because no one is free of shortcomings or sins that have a negative effect on his fasting. On the Day of Resurrection, some of his naafil deeds will be taken to make up the shortcomings in his obligatory deeds, as the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “The first thing for which people will be brought to account on the Day of Resurrection will be their salaah (prayer). Our Lord, may He be glorified and exalted, will say to His angels – although He knows best – ‘Look at the salaah of My slave, whether it is complete or incomplete.’ If it is perfect, it will be recorded as perfect, and if something is lacking, He will say, ‘Look and see whether My slave did any voluntary (naafil) prayers.’ If he did some voluntary prayers, [Allaah] will say, Complete the obligatory actions of My slave from his voluntary actions.’ Then all his actions will be dealt with in a similar manner.” (Narrated by Abu Dawood).
And Allaah knows best.
Sheikh Muhammed Salih Al-Munajjid
Ruling on paying fidyah for delaying making up missed fasts before making them up
Q) A woman is asking about making up missed Ramadaan fasts and feeding the poor (as fidyah for delaying that). Should she give food for each day, or should she give food for all the days in one go after she has finished making up the days?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If a person delays making up missed Ramadaan fasts until the next Ramadaan begins, then if that was for a reason such as sickness, pregnancy or breastfeeding and the like, then he or she does not have to do anything except make up the missed days. But if there was no excuse, then he or she has sinned and must make up the missed days, but does he or she have to pay a fidyah or not? There is a difference of opinion among the scholars. The majority are of the view that the fidyah must be paid, and it is feeding one poor person for every day. In the answer to question no. 26865 we stated that the more correct view is that the fidyah is not obligatory, but the one who pays it in order to be on the safe side has done well.
This fidyah – according to those who say that it is required – becomes obligatory upon that person as soon as the next Ramadaan begins, and he may offer it at that time, or delay it until he makes up those fasts, but it is better to hasten to do it so as to fulfil his obligation.
It says in al-Mawsoo’ah al-Fiqhiyyah (28/76): Making up missed Ramadaan fasts may be done at any time but the majority of scholars limited it to a specific time frame within which they must be made up, which is before the next Ramadaan begins, because of the words of ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her): “I would owe missed Ramadaan fasts but I would not be able to make them up except in Sha’baan, because of my duties towards the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him).” This is similar to prayer, which should not be delayed until the time for the next prayer comes.
According to the majority of scholars, it is not permissible to delay making up missed Ramadaan fasts until the next Ramadaan comes without an excuse, and that doing so incurs sin, because of this hadeeth of ‘Aa’ishah. If a person delays that then he must offer the fidyah: feeding one poor person for each day, because of the report narrated from Ibn ‘Abbaas, Ibn ‘Umar and Abu Hurayrah (may Allaah be pleased with them) who said concerning the one who has to make up a missed fast but does not do so until the next Ramadaan comes: “He must make it up and feed one poor person for each day.” This fidyah is for delaying it. It is permissible to offer the food before making up the fast, at the same time, or afterwards. End quote.
Al-Mardaawi al-Hanbali (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
He should offer food that is acceptable for expiation. It is permissible to give the food before making up the fast, at the same time, or afterwards. al-Majd – meaning Ibn Taymiyah, the grandfather of Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah – said that the best is to give it beforehand, in his view, so as to hasten to do good and to rid oneself of the problem of postponing. End quote from al-Insaaf (3/333).
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If a person delays making up missed Ramadaan fasts until the next Ramadaan begins, then if that was for a reason such as sickness, pregnancy or breastfeeding and the like, then he or she does not have to do anything except make up the missed days. But if there was no excuse, then he or she has sinned and must make up the missed days, but does he or she have to pay a fidyah or not? There is a difference of opinion among the scholars. The majority are of the view that the fidyah must be paid, and it is feeding one poor person for every day. In the answer to question no. 26865 we stated that the more correct view is that the fidyah is not obligatory, but the one who pays it in order to be on the safe side has done well.
This fidyah – according to those who say that it is required – becomes obligatory upon that person as soon as the next Ramadaan begins, and he may offer it at that time, or delay it until he makes up those fasts, but it is better to hasten to do it so as to fulfil his obligation.
It says in al-Mawsoo’ah al-Fiqhiyyah (28/76): Making up missed Ramadaan fasts may be done at any time but the majority of scholars limited it to a specific time frame within which they must be made up, which is before the next Ramadaan begins, because of the words of ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her): “I would owe missed Ramadaan fasts but I would not be able to make them up except in Sha’baan, because of my duties towards the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him).” This is similar to prayer, which should not be delayed until the time for the next prayer comes.
According to the majority of scholars, it is not permissible to delay making up missed Ramadaan fasts until the next Ramadaan comes without an excuse, and that doing so incurs sin, because of this hadeeth of ‘Aa’ishah. If a person delays that then he must offer the fidyah: feeding one poor person for each day, because of the report narrated from Ibn ‘Abbaas, Ibn ‘Umar and Abu Hurayrah (may Allaah be pleased with them) who said concerning the one who has to make up a missed fast but does not do so until the next Ramadaan comes: “He must make it up and feed one poor person for each day.” This fidyah is for delaying it. It is permissible to offer the food before making up the fast, at the same time, or afterwards. End quote.
Al-Mardaawi al-Hanbali (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
He should offer food that is acceptable for expiation. It is permissible to give the food before making up the fast, at the same time, or afterwards. al-Majd – meaning Ibn Taymiyah, the grandfather of Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah – said that the best is to give it beforehand, in his view, so as to hasten to do good and to rid oneself of the problem of postponing. End quote from al-Insaaf (3/333).
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
Passing the meeqaat for one who intends to do Hajj and ‘Umrah, then goes back to it
Q) There is a pilgrim who intends to do Hajj, but he has business in Makkah then in Madeenah. He passed the meeqaat and did not enter ihraam, and he entered Makkah then he went to Madeenah, and entered ihraam from the meeqaat of Madeenah for Hajj. What is the ruling on his action?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
So long as the pilgrim went out to the meeqaat of the people of Madeenah, and came in ihraam, he does not have to do anything about his entering Makkaah previously without ihraam. But it would have been better for him to enter from his first meeqaat in ihraam.
And Allaah is the Source of strength.
Standing Committee for Academic Research and Issuing Fatwas, 11/155
A) Praise be to Allaah.
So long as the pilgrim went out to the meeqaat of the people of Madeenah, and came in ihraam, he does not have to do anything about his entering Makkaah previously without ihraam. But it would have been better for him to enter from his first meeqaat in ihraam.
And Allaah is the Source of strength.
Standing Committee for Academic Research and Issuing Fatwas, 11/155
It is essential to recite the phrases of the adhaan in order
Q) What is the ruling on one who says Hayya ‘ala al-Falaah (come to prosperity) before Hayya ‘ala al-salaah (come to prayer) in the adhaan? Please give the evidence.
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If he says Hayya ‘ala al-Falaah (come to prosperity) before Hayya ‘ala al-salaah (come to prayer), he has to repeat Hayya ‘ala al-Falaah (come to prosperity) after saying Hayya ‘ala al-salaah (come to prayer), because it is essential that the phrases of the adhaan be given in the right order. The adhaan was narrated in this particular order, so if a person inverts the phrases, he is doing something that is not in accordance with the command of Allaah and His Messenger, and the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever does something that is not in accordance with this matter of ours will have it rejected.” End quote.
Fataawa al-Tahaarah wa’l-Salaah by Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (p. 63).
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If he says Hayya ‘ala al-Falaah (come to prosperity) before Hayya ‘ala al-salaah (come to prayer), he has to repeat Hayya ‘ala al-Falaah (come to prosperity) after saying Hayya ‘ala al-salaah (come to prayer), because it is essential that the phrases of the adhaan be given in the right order. The adhaan was narrated in this particular order, so if a person inverts the phrases, he is doing something that is not in accordance with the command of Allaah and His Messenger, and the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever does something that is not in accordance with this matter of ours will have it rejected.” End quote.
Fataawa al-Tahaarah wa’l-Salaah by Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (p. 63).
Ruling on plates on which there are images
Q) What is the ruling on plates on which there are images? Please note that they are not usually used except in cases of necessity?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
The basic principle is that it is haraam to make images of animate beings, because of the evidence that has been narrated concerning that. But if the images are treated in a humiliating manner or are partial images, then it is permissible to use the things they are drawn on, such as carpets and the like.
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. End quote.
Standing Committee for Academic Research and Issuing Fatwas
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (1/677).
A) Praise be to Allaah.
The basic principle is that it is haraam to make images of animate beings, because of the evidence that has been narrated concerning that. But if the images are treated in a humiliating manner or are partial images, then it is permissible to use the things they are drawn on, such as carpets and the like.
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. End quote.
Standing Committee for Academic Research and Issuing Fatwas
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (1/677).
He said to her, “Get in the car, I will divorce you”
Q) I am a short-tempered young man, and I do not know what I am saying when I get very angry, to such an extent that I feel as if I am not myself when I get angry. My wife was with me in the car and we argued, and she got out of the car and said to me, “Divorce me,” but she did not mean what she said, because she was upset. I said to her, “Get in the car, I will divorce you”, although I did not have the slightest intention of divorcing her. What is the ruling on this?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Your saying to your wife, “Get in the car, I will divorce you” is not regarded as a divorce, rather it is a promise of divorce, so divorce has not taken place.
You have to deal with the problem of being too angry, and beware of uttering the word of divorce in all situations, even if your wife asks for it. See the answer to question no. 658.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Your saying to your wife, “Get in the car, I will divorce you” is not regarded as a divorce, rather it is a promise of divorce, so divorce has not taken place.
You have to deal with the problem of being too angry, and beware of uttering the word of divorce in all situations, even if your wife asks for it. See the answer to question no. 658.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
Monday, October 13, 2008
Should he start with the six days of Shawwaal before making up missed fasts, if there are not enough days left?
Q) Is it permissible to fast the six days of Shawwaal before making up days that I did not fast in Ramadaan, if there is not enough time left in the month to do both? May Allaah reward you with good.
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Fasting six days of Shawwaal is dependent upon having completed the Ramadaan fast, according to the correct view. This is indicated by the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him): “Whoever fasts Ramadaan then follows it with six days of Shawwaal, it will be as if he fasted a lifetime.” Narrated by Muslim, 1164.
The conjunction thumma (then) indicates that this must be done in this order. This indicates that the fast of Ramadaan must be completed first (by observing the Ramadaan fast and making up any missed fasts), then after that one may fast the six days of Shawwaal, so as to attain the reward mentioned in the hadeeth.
The one who still owes missed Ramadaan fasts is said to have fasted part of Ramadaan; we cannot say that he has fasted Ramadaan.
But if a person has an excuse that kept him from fasting the six days of Shawwaal in Shawwaal because he had to make up missed fasts – such as a woman who was bleeding followed childbirth and spent all of Shawwaal making up for Ramadaan – then she may fast six days of Shawwaal in Dhu’l-Qa’dah, because she was excused. Similarly for anyone who has an excuse it is prescribed to make up the six days of Shawwaal in Dhu’l-Qa’dah, after making up the missed Ramadaan fasts. But the one who lets the month of Shawwaal go by without fasting these days and with no excuse, will not attain this reward.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen was asked: What if a woman owes days from Ramadaan – is it permissible for her to give precedence to fasting the six days of Shawwaal over making up the days she owes, or should she give priority to the days she owes over fasting the six days of Shawwaal?
He replied: If a woman still owes days from Ramadaan, then she should not fast the six days of Shawwaal until after she has made up what she owes, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever fasts Ramadaan then follows it with six days of Shawwaal…” Whoever still has days to make up from Ramadaan has not fasted Ramadaan, so she will not attain the reward of fasting the six days of Shawwaal until after she has finished making up the days she owes. If we assume that this making up missed fasts lasts throughout Shawwaal, such as if a woman was bleeding following childbirth and did not fast at all in Ramadaan, then she started to make up her missed fasts in Shawaal and did not finish that until Dhu’l-Qa’dah began, then she may fast the six days, and she will have the reward of one who fasted them in Shawwaal, because she delayed it for a necessary reason, so she will have the reward.
Majmoo’ al-Fataawa, 20/19. See also questions no. 4082 and 7863.
In addition to that, it is obligatory to make up missed fasts for the one who had an excuse, indeed that is part of this pillar of Islam. Based on this, hastening to do it and to discharge this duty takes priority over doing actions that are mustahabb. See question no. 23429.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Fasting six days of Shawwaal is dependent upon having completed the Ramadaan fast, according to the correct view. This is indicated by the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him): “Whoever fasts Ramadaan then follows it with six days of Shawwaal, it will be as if he fasted a lifetime.” Narrated by Muslim, 1164.
The conjunction thumma (then) indicates that this must be done in this order. This indicates that the fast of Ramadaan must be completed first (by observing the Ramadaan fast and making up any missed fasts), then after that one may fast the six days of Shawwaal, so as to attain the reward mentioned in the hadeeth.
The one who still owes missed Ramadaan fasts is said to have fasted part of Ramadaan; we cannot say that he has fasted Ramadaan.
But if a person has an excuse that kept him from fasting the six days of Shawwaal in Shawwaal because he had to make up missed fasts – such as a woman who was bleeding followed childbirth and spent all of Shawwaal making up for Ramadaan – then she may fast six days of Shawwaal in Dhu’l-Qa’dah, because she was excused. Similarly for anyone who has an excuse it is prescribed to make up the six days of Shawwaal in Dhu’l-Qa’dah, after making up the missed Ramadaan fasts. But the one who lets the month of Shawwaal go by without fasting these days and with no excuse, will not attain this reward.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen was asked: What if a woman owes days from Ramadaan – is it permissible for her to give precedence to fasting the six days of Shawwaal over making up the days she owes, or should she give priority to the days she owes over fasting the six days of Shawwaal?
He replied: If a woman still owes days from Ramadaan, then she should not fast the six days of Shawwaal until after she has made up what she owes, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever fasts Ramadaan then follows it with six days of Shawwaal…” Whoever still has days to make up from Ramadaan has not fasted Ramadaan, so she will not attain the reward of fasting the six days of Shawwaal until after she has finished making up the days she owes. If we assume that this making up missed fasts lasts throughout Shawwaal, such as if a woman was bleeding following childbirth and did not fast at all in Ramadaan, then she started to make up her missed fasts in Shawaal and did not finish that until Dhu’l-Qa’dah began, then she may fast the six days, and she will have the reward of one who fasted them in Shawwaal, because she delayed it for a necessary reason, so she will have the reward.
Majmoo’ al-Fataawa, 20/19. See also questions no. 4082 and 7863.
In addition to that, it is obligatory to make up missed fasts for the one who had an excuse, indeed that is part of this pillar of Islam. Based on this, hastening to do it and to discharge this duty takes priority over doing actions that are mustahabb. See question no. 23429.
Islam Q&A
Amount of fidyah to be paid by one who is unable to fast because of old age or sickness
Q) My father did not fast during Ramadaan because he was not able to fast due to his being old and sick, then he passed away without making up the fasts of that month. We offered expiation for him by giving money to the poor, then we heard that the expiation only counts if food is given. Should we offer the expiation again, and how much should we give?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
The majority of Maaliki, Shaafa’i and Hanbali fuqaha’ are of the view that paying cash does not count as the fidyah for not fasting, and what must be given is actual food, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And as for those who can fast with difficulty, (e.g. an old man), they have (a choice either to fast or) to feed a Miskeen (poor person) (for every day)”
[al-Baqarah 2:184]
Ibn ‘Abbaas (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: This refers to old men and old women who cannot fast, so they should feed one poor person for each day. Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 4505.
It says in Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (10/198): If the doctors have stated that this sickness means that you cannot fast, and there is no hope of recovery, then you must feed one poor person for each day, giving half a saa’ of the local staple food, whether it is dates or something else, for past and future months. If you give a poor person dinner or breakfast for the number of days that you did not fast, that will be sufficient. As for giving cash, that does not count. End quote.
So the elderly or sick person for whom there is no hope of recovery should feed one poor person for each day, giving half a saa’ of wheat, dates, rice or similar local staple. That is equivalent to approximately one and a half kilograms. See Fataawa Ramadaan, p. 545.
He may give it all in one go at the end of the month, 45 kilograms of rice, for example, or if he makes some food and invites poor people to come and eat, that is good, because that is what Anas (may Allaah be pleased with him) did.
Secondly:
If you gave the fidyah in the form of cash following the view of a scholar who issued a fatwa to that effect, then you do not have to give it again. But if you did that yourselves, then you have to give it again, in order to be on the safe side and in order to honour your father, may Allaah have mercy on hi and forgive him.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
The majority of Maaliki, Shaafa’i and Hanbali fuqaha’ are of the view that paying cash does not count as the fidyah for not fasting, and what must be given is actual food, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And as for those who can fast with difficulty, (e.g. an old man), they have (a choice either to fast or) to feed a Miskeen (poor person) (for every day)”
[al-Baqarah 2:184]
Ibn ‘Abbaas (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: This refers to old men and old women who cannot fast, so they should feed one poor person for each day. Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 4505.
It says in Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (10/198): If the doctors have stated that this sickness means that you cannot fast, and there is no hope of recovery, then you must feed one poor person for each day, giving half a saa’ of the local staple food, whether it is dates or something else, for past and future months. If you give a poor person dinner or breakfast for the number of days that you did not fast, that will be sufficient. As for giving cash, that does not count. End quote.
So the elderly or sick person for whom there is no hope of recovery should feed one poor person for each day, giving half a saa’ of wheat, dates, rice or similar local staple. That is equivalent to approximately one and a half kilograms. See Fataawa Ramadaan, p. 545.
He may give it all in one go at the end of the month, 45 kilograms of rice, for example, or if he makes some food and invites poor people to come and eat, that is good, because that is what Anas (may Allaah be pleased with him) did.
Secondly:
If you gave the fidyah in the form of cash following the view of a scholar who issued a fatwa to that effect, then you do not have to give it again. But if you did that yourselves, then you have to give it again, in order to be on the safe side and in order to honour your father, may Allaah have mercy on hi and forgive him.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
He is afraid that he may lose his job and he has some money; does he have to do Hajj with it?
Q) Next year, if Allah wills, I will possess enough money to perform Hajj alone without my wife. This amount would be sufficient for urgent circumstances; especially that I work in the private sector. The company I work for might ask me to resign at any time. Do I have to perform hajj or not? Bear in mind that I have another amount of money but it is needed for my consummation (we had our marriage contract done but not consummation yet).
A) Praise be to Allaah.
In order for Hajj to be obligatory for the adult, it is stipulated that he should be financially and physically able for it, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And Hajj (pilgrimage to Makkah) to the House (Ka‘bah) is a duty that mankind owes to Allaah, those who can afford the expenses (for one’s conveyance, provision and residence)”
[Aal ‘Imraan 3:97].
The fuqaha’ interpreted financial ability as meaning that one has enough to cover food and transportation, i.e., the expenses of travel to and from the Sacred House of Allaah, if this cost is surplus to one’s basic needs and other expenditure as prescribed in sharee’ah, and to pay off his debts.
What is meant here by expenditure is that he should have enough to cover his own and his family’s maintenance until he returns, and after he returns he should have enough to suffice him and those on whom he spends, such as the rent on property or salary or trade and so on. Hence he does not have to go for Hajj using the capital of his business, if he spends on himself and his family from its profits, and if taking away from the capital will result in a reduction in profits, such that they will not be enough for him and his family. For more information on this, please see the answer to question no. 11534.
If you have the money that will be sufficient for you to do Hajj, and it is surplus to your needs, then you must go for Hajj, unless your fear of losing your job is a real fear based on strong circumstantial evidence, in which case you do not have to do Hajj. But if this fear is just an illusion and notion with no basis, then you have to do Hajj.
As for the money that you have set aside for marriage, you do not have to do Hajj with it if you fear hardship for yourself in the event of delaying your marriage, rather you should give precedence to marriage. If there is any other money, you can use that for Hajj, otherwise Hajj is not obligatory for you because you cannot afford it.
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: If he needs to get married and he fears that it will be too difficult for him otherwise, then he should give priority to that, because it is obligatory for him and he cannot do without it, so it becomes part of his essential spending. But he has no such fears, then he should give priority to Hajj, because marriage is voluntary and should not take precedence over Hajj which is obligatory.
End quote from al-Mughni (3/88).
See also the answer to question no. 27120.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
In order for Hajj to be obligatory for the adult, it is stipulated that he should be financially and physically able for it, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And Hajj (pilgrimage to Makkah) to the House (Ka‘bah) is a duty that mankind owes to Allaah, those who can afford the expenses (for one’s conveyance, provision and residence)”
[Aal ‘Imraan 3:97].
The fuqaha’ interpreted financial ability as meaning that one has enough to cover food and transportation, i.e., the expenses of travel to and from the Sacred House of Allaah, if this cost is surplus to one’s basic needs and other expenditure as prescribed in sharee’ah, and to pay off his debts.
What is meant here by expenditure is that he should have enough to cover his own and his family’s maintenance until he returns, and after he returns he should have enough to suffice him and those on whom he spends, such as the rent on property or salary or trade and so on. Hence he does not have to go for Hajj using the capital of his business, if he spends on himself and his family from its profits, and if taking away from the capital will result in a reduction in profits, such that they will not be enough for him and his family. For more information on this, please see the answer to question no. 11534.
If you have the money that will be sufficient for you to do Hajj, and it is surplus to your needs, then you must go for Hajj, unless your fear of losing your job is a real fear based on strong circumstantial evidence, in which case you do not have to do Hajj. But if this fear is just an illusion and notion with no basis, then you have to do Hajj.
As for the money that you have set aside for marriage, you do not have to do Hajj with it if you fear hardship for yourself in the event of delaying your marriage, rather you should give precedence to marriage. If there is any other money, you can use that for Hajj, otherwise Hajj is not obligatory for you because you cannot afford it.
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: If he needs to get married and he fears that it will be too difficult for him otherwise, then he should give priority to that, because it is obligatory for him and he cannot do without it, so it becomes part of his essential spending. But he has no such fears, then he should give priority to Hajj, because marriage is voluntary and should not take precedence over Hajj which is obligatory.
End quote from al-Mughni (3/88).
See also the answer to question no. 27120.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
How can the Muslim be a trial for the kaafir?
Q) Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Our Lord! Make us not a trial for the disbelievers” [al-Mumtahanah 60:5].
How can a Muslim be a trial for those who disbelieve?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
He can be a trial for those who disbelieve if the kuffaar gain power over him, because the kaafir’s gaining power over the Muslim is a trial (fitnah), as they will carry the burden of the sins they commit against us, so that is a trial for them.
The phrase “a trial for those who disbelieve” may also be understood as meaning that they try to tempt us away from our religion by means of persecution, as in the verse in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Verily, those who put into trial the believing men and believing women (by torturing them and burning them), and then do not turn in repentance (to Allaah), then they will have the torment of Hell, and they will have the punishment of the burning Fire”
[al-Burooj 85:5].
This verse includes both meanings, because the two meanings do not exclude one another. The basic principle in tafseer is that if the verse may be interpreted in two ways that do not exclude one another, then it must be interpreted in both ways. End quote.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him).
Liqaa’aat al-Baab il-Maftooh (2/106).
“Our Lord! Make us not a trial for the disbelievers” [al-Mumtahanah 60:5].
How can a Muslim be a trial for those who disbelieve?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
He can be a trial for those who disbelieve if the kuffaar gain power over him, because the kaafir’s gaining power over the Muslim is a trial (fitnah), as they will carry the burden of the sins they commit against us, so that is a trial for them.
The phrase “a trial for those who disbelieve” may also be understood as meaning that they try to tempt us away from our religion by means of persecution, as in the verse in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Verily, those who put into trial the believing men and believing women (by torturing them and burning them), and then do not turn in repentance (to Allaah), then they will have the torment of Hell, and they will have the punishment of the burning Fire”
[al-Burooj 85:5].
This verse includes both meanings, because the two meanings do not exclude one another. The basic principle in tafseer is that if the verse may be interpreted in two ways that do not exclude one another, then it must be interpreted in both ways. End quote.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him).
Liqaa’aat al-Baab il-Maftooh (2/106).
Should he respond to non-Muslims when they wish him a Happy New Year?
Q) Is it permissible for me to say to non-Muslims “And the same to you” when they wish me a Happy New Year or say Best Wishes?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
It is not permissible to greet or congratulate the kuffaar on the occasion of Christmas, New Year or any of their other holidays, and it is not permissible to respond to them when they greet us on those occasions, because they are not festivals that are prescribed in our religion, and returning their greeting is an affirmation and approval of them. The Muslim should be proud of his religion and its rulings, and he should be keen to call others and convey to them the religion of Allaah, may He be glorified and exalted.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about the ruling on greeting the kuffaar on the occasion of Christmas and how we should respond when they greet us on this occasion. Is it permissible to go to the parties that they hold on this occasion?
Is a person sinning if he does any of the things mentioned without intending to, and he only does it to be nice, or because of or shyness or embarrassment or other reasons? Is it permissible to imitate them in that?
He replied:
Greeting the kuffaar on the occasion of Christmas or any of their other religious holidays is haraam according to scholarly consensus, as was stated by Ibn al-Qayyim in his book Ahkaam Ahl al-Dhimmah, where he says:
"Congratulating the kuffaar on the rituals that belong only to them is haraam by consensus, as is congratulating them on their festivals and fasts by saying ‘A happy festival to you’ or ‘May you enjoy your festival,’ and so on. If the one who says this has been saved from kufr, it is still forbidden. It is like congratulating someone for prostrating to the cross, or even worse than that. It is as great a sin as congratulating someone for drinking wine, or murdering someone, or having illicit sexual relations, and so on. Many of those who have no respect for their religion fall into this error; they do not realize the offensiveness of their actions. Whoever congratulates a person for his disobedience or bid’ah or kufr exposes himself to the wrath and anger of Allaah." End quote.
Congratulating the kuffaar on their religious festivals is haraam to the extent described by Ibn al-Qayyim because it implies that one accepts or approves of their rituals of kufr, even if one would not accept those things for oneself. But the Muslim should not accept the rituals of kufr or congratulate anyone else for them, because Allaah does not accept any of that at all, as He says (interpretation of the meaning):
"If you disbelieve, then verily, Allaah is not in need of you, He likes not disbelief for His slaves. And if you are grateful (by being believers), He is pleased therewith for you. .
[al-Zumar 39:7]
". . . This day, I have perfected your religion for you, completed My favour upon you, and have chosen for you Islaam as your religion . .
[al-Maa’idah 5:3]
So congratulating them is forbidden, whether they are one’s colleagues at work or otherwise.
If they greet us on the occasion of their festivals, we should not respond, because these are not our festivals, and because they are not festivals which are acceptable to Allaah. These festivals are innovations in their religions, and even those which may have been prescribed formerly have been abrogated by the religion of Islaam, with which Allaah sent Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) to the whole of mankind. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
"Whoever seeks a religion other than Islaam, it will never be accepted of him, and in the Hereafter he will be one of the losers."
[Aal ‘Imraan 3:85]
It is haraam for a Muslim to accept invitations on such occasions, because this is worse than congratulating them as it implies taking part in their celebrations. Similarly, Muslims are forbidden to imitate the kuffaar by having parties on such occasions, or exchanging gifts, or giving out sweets or food, or taking time off work, etc., because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: "Whoever imitates a people is one of them." Shaykh al-Islaam Ibn Taymiyah said in his book Iqtidaa’ al-Siraat al-Mustaqeem Mukhaalifat Ashaab al-Jaheem: "Imitating them in some of their festivals implies that one is pleased with their false beliefs and practices, and gives them the hope that they may have the opportunity to humiliate and mislead the weak
End quote from Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 3/44.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
It is not permissible to greet or congratulate the kuffaar on the occasion of Christmas, New Year or any of their other holidays, and it is not permissible to respond to them when they greet us on those occasions, because they are not festivals that are prescribed in our religion, and returning their greeting is an affirmation and approval of them. The Muslim should be proud of his religion and its rulings, and he should be keen to call others and convey to them the religion of Allaah, may He be glorified and exalted.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about the ruling on greeting the kuffaar on the occasion of Christmas and how we should respond when they greet us on this occasion. Is it permissible to go to the parties that they hold on this occasion?
Is a person sinning if he does any of the things mentioned without intending to, and he only does it to be nice, or because of or shyness or embarrassment or other reasons? Is it permissible to imitate them in that?
He replied:
Greeting the kuffaar on the occasion of Christmas or any of their other religious holidays is haraam according to scholarly consensus, as was stated by Ibn al-Qayyim in his book Ahkaam Ahl al-Dhimmah, where he says:
"Congratulating the kuffaar on the rituals that belong only to them is haraam by consensus, as is congratulating them on their festivals and fasts by saying ‘A happy festival to you’ or ‘May you enjoy your festival,’ and so on. If the one who says this has been saved from kufr, it is still forbidden. It is like congratulating someone for prostrating to the cross, or even worse than that. It is as great a sin as congratulating someone for drinking wine, or murdering someone, or having illicit sexual relations, and so on. Many of those who have no respect for their religion fall into this error; they do not realize the offensiveness of their actions. Whoever congratulates a person for his disobedience or bid’ah or kufr exposes himself to the wrath and anger of Allaah." End quote.
Congratulating the kuffaar on their religious festivals is haraam to the extent described by Ibn al-Qayyim because it implies that one accepts or approves of their rituals of kufr, even if one would not accept those things for oneself. But the Muslim should not accept the rituals of kufr or congratulate anyone else for them, because Allaah does not accept any of that at all, as He says (interpretation of the meaning):
"If you disbelieve, then verily, Allaah is not in need of you, He likes not disbelief for His slaves. And if you are grateful (by being believers), He is pleased therewith for you. .
[al-Zumar 39:7]
". . . This day, I have perfected your religion for you, completed My favour upon you, and have chosen for you Islaam as your religion . .
[al-Maa’idah 5:3]
So congratulating them is forbidden, whether they are one’s colleagues at work or otherwise.
If they greet us on the occasion of their festivals, we should not respond, because these are not our festivals, and because they are not festivals which are acceptable to Allaah. These festivals are innovations in their religions, and even those which may have been prescribed formerly have been abrogated by the religion of Islaam, with which Allaah sent Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) to the whole of mankind. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
"Whoever seeks a religion other than Islaam, it will never be accepted of him, and in the Hereafter he will be one of the losers."
[Aal ‘Imraan 3:85]
It is haraam for a Muslim to accept invitations on such occasions, because this is worse than congratulating them as it implies taking part in their celebrations. Similarly, Muslims are forbidden to imitate the kuffaar by having parties on such occasions, or exchanging gifts, or giving out sweets or food, or taking time off work, etc., because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: "Whoever imitates a people is one of them." Shaykh al-Islaam Ibn Taymiyah said in his book Iqtidaa’ al-Siraat al-Mustaqeem Mukhaalifat Ashaab al-Jaheem: "Imitating them in some of their festivals implies that one is pleased with their false beliefs and practices, and gives them the hope that they may have the opportunity to humiliate and mislead the weak
End quote from Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 3/44.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
He used to masturbate and pray without doing ghusl – does he have to make up those prayers?
Q) I used to masturbate since I reached puberty and I did not know that it is haraam, and I used to pray without doing ghusl. Now I have repented, praise be to Allaah. My question is: should I make up the prayers that I missed with every obligatory prayer, or should I offer them all at one time? Should I offer them in order i.e., should I start with Fajr first and then Zuhr and so on?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Deliberately praying without having purified oneself is a grave sin, and the one who does that comes under the same ruling as one who does not pray, because he has failed to do something without which his prayer is not valid.
Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: The ruling on not doing wudoo’ or ghusl in the case of janaabah, and not facing the qiblah when praying, and not covering the ‘awrah, is the same as the ruling on the one who does not pray. Similarly the ruling on not standing, bowing or prostrating when one is able to do so is like the ruling on not praying. End quote from al-Salaah wa Hukm Taarikiha, p. 42.
It seems from your question that you did not do ghusl in the case of janaabah because you were unaware that it is obligatory. The scholars differed concerning one who does that – does he have to repeat the prayer or not?
This has been discussed in the answer to question no. 9446 and 45648.
If it never occurred to you that it is obligatory to do ghusl after masturbating, then we hope that you do not have to make up the previous prayers, but you have to repent and be righteous, and do a lot of good deeds. Allaah say (interpretation of the meaning):
“And verily, I am indeed forgiving to him who repents, believes (in My Oneness, and associates none in worship with Me) and does righteous good deeds, and then remains constant in doing them (till his death)”
[Ta-Ha 20:82]
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Deliberately praying without having purified oneself is a grave sin, and the one who does that comes under the same ruling as one who does not pray, because he has failed to do something without which his prayer is not valid.
Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: The ruling on not doing wudoo’ or ghusl in the case of janaabah, and not facing the qiblah when praying, and not covering the ‘awrah, is the same as the ruling on the one who does not pray. Similarly the ruling on not standing, bowing or prostrating when one is able to do so is like the ruling on not praying. End quote from al-Salaah wa Hukm Taarikiha, p. 42.
It seems from your question that you did not do ghusl in the case of janaabah because you were unaware that it is obligatory. The scholars differed concerning one who does that – does he have to repeat the prayer or not?
This has been discussed in the answer to question no. 9446 and 45648.
If it never occurred to you that it is obligatory to do ghusl after masturbating, then we hope that you do not have to make up the previous prayers, but you have to repent and be righteous, and do a lot of good deeds. Allaah say (interpretation of the meaning):
“And verily, I am indeed forgiving to him who repents, believes (in My Oneness, and associates none in worship with Me) and does righteous good deeds, and then remains constant in doing them (till his death)”
[Ta-Ha 20:82]
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
Ruling on students standing up to greet the teacher when he enters the classroom
Q) It is customary for the students to stand up out of respect for the teacher when he enters the classroom. Is that permissible?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Al-Tirmidhi (2754) narrated that Anas (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: “No person was dearer to them than the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). When they saw him, they did not stand up, because they knew that he disliked that.” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi.
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) disliked them to stand up for him, out of humility towards his Lord, and so as to differ from the custom of the arrogant and tyrants. Tuhfat al-Ahwadhi.
The scholars of the Standing Committee for Issuing Fatwas were asked: What is the Islamic ruling on students standing up for their teachers when they enter the classroom? Is it permissible or not?
They replied:
The best of guidance is the guidance of Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and the worst of matters are those which are innovated. The best of generations is that to whom the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) came, and the generations who came after him, as is proven from him (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). His practice with his companions with regard to this matter was that when he came to them, they did not stand up for him, because they knew that he disliked that. So this teacher should not tell his students to stand up for him, and they should not obey him if he tells them to do that, because there is no obedience to any created being if it involves disobedience towards the Creator.
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. End quote.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (1/172).
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Al-Tirmidhi (2754) narrated that Anas (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: “No person was dearer to them than the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). When they saw him, they did not stand up, because they knew that he disliked that.” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi.
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) disliked them to stand up for him, out of humility towards his Lord, and so as to differ from the custom of the arrogant and tyrants. Tuhfat al-Ahwadhi.
The scholars of the Standing Committee for Issuing Fatwas were asked: What is the Islamic ruling on students standing up for their teachers when they enter the classroom? Is it permissible or not?
They replied:
The best of guidance is the guidance of Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and the worst of matters are those which are innovated. The best of generations is that to whom the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) came, and the generations who came after him, as is proven from him (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). His practice with his companions with regard to this matter was that when he came to them, they did not stand up for him, because they knew that he disliked that. So this teacher should not tell his students to stand up for him, and they should not obey him if he tells them to do that, because there is no obedience to any created being if it involves disobedience towards the Creator.
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. End quote.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (1/172).
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
Friday, October 10, 2008
If a person did not fast at all in Ramadaan, does he have to make up 30 days or the number of days that were in the month?
Q) During Ramadaan my wife was bleeding following childbirth and she did not fast any day at all. She wants to make them up in sha Allaah later on. My question is, should she make up the number of days that the people fasted during this month, i.e., if the month was only 29 or 28 days, and did not reach 30 days, should she make up what the people fasted, or does she have to fast 30 days whatever the case?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If a Muslim did not fast at all in Ramadaan, because of an excuse such as travelling, sickness or nifaas (postpartum bleeding), then he (or she) has to make up the number of days, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“but if any of you is ill or on a journey, the same number (should be made up) from other days”
[al-Baqarah 2:184]
If Ramadaan was complete, then he should make up thirty days, and if it was twenty-nine days, he should make up that number. It is not possible for a lunar hijri month to be twenty-eight days.
Some scholars are of the view that he should make it up as thirty days, or fast for a lunar month. It says in al-Insaaf (3/333): If a person has missed Ramadaan entirely, whether the month was complete (thirty days) or not (twenty-nine days), because of an excuse such as being held prisoner and the like, he should make up the number of days whatever it is, like the numbers of prayers, according to the correct view. According to al-Qaadi, if he fasts for a lunar month that will be sufficient, whether it is complete or not. If he does not fast for a month then he should fast for thirty days.
Based on the former opinion, whoever fasts twenty-nine days from the beginning of a complete month or from the middle of a month, if the Ramadaan that he missed was twenty-nine days, this is sufficient, based on the number of days. According to the second view, he should fast an extra day so as either to complete the month or the number of thirty days. End quote.
It says in Manh al-Jaleel (2/152): If a person does not fast in Ramadaan at all and the month was thirty days, and he makes it up during a lunar month that turns out to be twenty-nine days, then he should fast another day. But if it is the other way round, he does not have to fast the last day, because Allaah says, “the same number (should be made up) from other days”. This is the well known view. Ibn Wahb said: If he fasts following the lunar month whatever he fasts will be sufficient, even if the month is twenty-nine days and Ramadaan was thirty days. End quote.
Conclusion: Your wife should make up the number of days of the month, even if it was twenty-nine days.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If a Muslim did not fast at all in Ramadaan, because of an excuse such as travelling, sickness or nifaas (postpartum bleeding), then he (or she) has to make up the number of days, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“but if any of you is ill or on a journey, the same number (should be made up) from other days”
[al-Baqarah 2:184]
If Ramadaan was complete, then he should make up thirty days, and if it was twenty-nine days, he should make up that number. It is not possible for a lunar hijri month to be twenty-eight days.
Some scholars are of the view that he should make it up as thirty days, or fast for a lunar month. It says in al-Insaaf (3/333): If a person has missed Ramadaan entirely, whether the month was complete (thirty days) or not (twenty-nine days), because of an excuse such as being held prisoner and the like, he should make up the number of days whatever it is, like the numbers of prayers, according to the correct view. According to al-Qaadi, if he fasts for a lunar month that will be sufficient, whether it is complete or not. If he does not fast for a month then he should fast for thirty days.
Based on the former opinion, whoever fasts twenty-nine days from the beginning of a complete month or from the middle of a month, if the Ramadaan that he missed was twenty-nine days, this is sufficient, based on the number of days. According to the second view, he should fast an extra day so as either to complete the month or the number of thirty days. End quote.
It says in Manh al-Jaleel (2/152): If a person does not fast in Ramadaan at all and the month was thirty days, and he makes it up during a lunar month that turns out to be twenty-nine days, then he should fast another day. But if it is the other way round, he does not have to fast the last day, because Allaah says, “the same number (should be made up) from other days”. This is the well known view. Ibn Wahb said: If he fasts following the lunar month whatever he fasts will be sufficient, even if the month is twenty-nine days and Ramadaan was thirty days. End quote.
Conclusion: Your wife should make up the number of days of the month, even if it was twenty-nine days.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
Fasting is not unique to this ummah
Q) Is the month of Ramadaan unique to this ummah or was it for the previous nations too?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“O you who believe! Observing As-Sawm (the fasting) is prescribed for you as it was prescribed for those before you, that you may become Al-Muttaqoon (the pious)”
[al-Baqarah 2:183].
This verse indicates that fasting is an ancient act of worship that was enjoined upon those who came before us just as it is enjoined upon us. But were they asked to fast in Ramadaan or at other times? I do not know of any statement of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) concerning that. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz (15/7)
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“O you who believe! Observing As-Sawm (the fasting) is prescribed for you as it was prescribed for those before you, that you may become Al-Muttaqoon (the pious)”
[al-Baqarah 2:183].
This verse indicates that fasting is an ancient act of worship that was enjoined upon those who came before us just as it is enjoined upon us. But were they asked to fast in Ramadaan or at other times? I do not know of any statement of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) concerning that. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz (15/7)
Ruling on one who gives charity and zakaah only with the aim of making his wealth grow
Q) I only give zakaah or charity with the aim of making my wealth grow and increasing the barakah in it. What is your advice?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
There is nothing wrong with that, as Allaah pointed out something like that in the words of Nooh to his people (interpretation of the meaning):
“I [Nooh] said (to them): ‘Ask forgiveness from your Lord, verily, He is Oft‑Forgiving;
11. ‘He will send rain to you in abundance,
12. ‘And give you increase in wealth and children, and bestow on you gardens and bestow on you rivers”
[Nooh 71:10-12].
And the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said:
“Wealth never decreases because of charity.”
And he (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever would like to have his lifespan extended and his provision increased, let him uphold his ties of kinship.”
Allaah has only stipulated these worldly benefits in order to encourage people, because if they are encouraged they will do these good deeds, and the one who is seeking the Hereafter will attain benefits in this world and in the Hereafter, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Whosoever desires (by his deeds) the reward of the Hereafter, We give him increase in his reward”[al-Shoora 42:20], i.e., We will give him reward in this world and in the Hereafter. As for only doing acts of worship in the hope of gaining worldly benefits only, this is undoubtedly a shortcoming in intention which is caused by love of this world in the heart of the one who does that. End quote.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him).
Liqaa’aat al-Baab il-Maftooh (3/505).
A) Praise be to Allaah.
There is nothing wrong with that, as Allaah pointed out something like that in the words of Nooh to his people (interpretation of the meaning):
“I [Nooh] said (to them): ‘Ask forgiveness from your Lord, verily, He is Oft‑Forgiving;
11. ‘He will send rain to you in abundance,
12. ‘And give you increase in wealth and children, and bestow on you gardens and bestow on you rivers”
[Nooh 71:10-12].
And the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said:
“Wealth never decreases because of charity.”
And he (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever would like to have his lifespan extended and his provision increased, let him uphold his ties of kinship.”
Allaah has only stipulated these worldly benefits in order to encourage people, because if they are encouraged they will do these good deeds, and the one who is seeking the Hereafter will attain benefits in this world and in the Hereafter, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Whosoever desires (by his deeds) the reward of the Hereafter, We give him increase in his reward”[al-Shoora 42:20], i.e., We will give him reward in this world and in the Hereafter. As for only doing acts of worship in the hope of gaining worldly benefits only, this is undoubtedly a shortcoming in intention which is caused by love of this world in the heart of the one who does that. End quote.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him).
Liqaa’aat al-Baab il-Maftooh (3/505).
Does janaazah prayer in al-Haram al-Makki bring a multiple reward?
Q) What about janaazah (funeral) prayer in al-Haram (in Makkah) – does it bring a multiple reward?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
It is proven from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) that prayer in al-Masjid al-Haraam is better than a hundred thousand prayers (offered elsewhere). See Irwa’ al-Ghaleel 91129).
The scholars differed as to whether this multiple reward applies only to the five prescribed prayers or does it include others as well?
Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in Sharh Muslim: It should be noted that our view is that the superiority of prayer in these two mosques does not apply only to the obligatory prayers, rather it includes both obligatory and naafil (supererogatory) prayers. This is the view of Mutarrif among the companions of Maalik. Al-Tahhaawi said: It applies only to the obligatory prayers, but this is contrary to the general meaning of these saheeh ahaadeeth. And Allaah knows best. End quote.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: Does janaazah prayer in al-Haram al-Makki bring a multiple reward like other prayers?
He replied: There is a difference of opinion among the scholars concerning this. Some scholars say that what brings the multiple reward in al-Masjid al-Haraam is the five daily prayers only, and other prayers do not bring the multiple reward. What appears to be the case from the apparent meaning of the hadeeth is that it includes all prayers, and the janaazah prayer is included in this general meaning of the reward for prayers in al-Masjid al-Haraam being multiplied. And Allaah knows best. End quote from Liqa’ al-baab il-Maftooh (116/11).
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
It is proven from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) that prayer in al-Masjid al-Haraam is better than a hundred thousand prayers (offered elsewhere). See Irwa’ al-Ghaleel 91129).
The scholars differed as to whether this multiple reward applies only to the five prescribed prayers or does it include others as well?
Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in Sharh Muslim: It should be noted that our view is that the superiority of prayer in these two mosques does not apply only to the obligatory prayers, rather it includes both obligatory and naafil (supererogatory) prayers. This is the view of Mutarrif among the companions of Maalik. Al-Tahhaawi said: It applies only to the obligatory prayers, but this is contrary to the general meaning of these saheeh ahaadeeth. And Allaah knows best. End quote.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: Does janaazah prayer in al-Haram al-Makki bring a multiple reward like other prayers?
He replied: There is a difference of opinion among the scholars concerning this. Some scholars say that what brings the multiple reward in al-Masjid al-Haraam is the five daily prayers only, and other prayers do not bring the multiple reward. What appears to be the case from the apparent meaning of the hadeeth is that it includes all prayers, and the janaazah prayer is included in this general meaning of the reward for prayers in al-Masjid al-Haraam being multiplied. And Allaah knows best. End quote from Liqa’ al-baab il-Maftooh (116/11).
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
Saturday, October 4, 2008
It is not valid to combine making up missed Ramadaan fasts with fasting six days of Shawwaal with one intention
Q) Is it permissible for me to fast the six days of Shawwaal with the same intention as making up the days I did not fast in Ramadaan because of menstruation?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
That is not valid, because fasting the six days of Shawwaal can only be done after fasting Ramadaan in full.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen said in Fataawa al-Siyaam (438):
Whoever fasts the day of ‘Arafah, or the day of ‘Ashoora’, but still owes days from Ramadaan, his fast is valid, but if he intends to fast this day to make up for a missed Ramadaan fast, he will have two rewards: the reward for the day of ‘Arafah or ‘Ashoora’ along with the reward for making up the missed fast. This has to do with voluntary fasts in general that are not connected to Ramadaan. With regard to fasting the six days of Shawwaal, they are connected to Ramadaan and can only done after making up missed Ramadaan fasts. If he fasts them before making up missed Ramadaan fasts he will not attain that reward, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever fasts Ramadaan then follows it with six days of Shawwaal, it will be as if he fasted for a lifetime.” It is well known that whoever still owes days from Ramadaan is not regarded as having fasted Ramadaan until he makes up the days he missed.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
That is not valid, because fasting the six days of Shawwaal can only be done after fasting Ramadaan in full.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen said in Fataawa al-Siyaam (438):
Whoever fasts the day of ‘Arafah, or the day of ‘Ashoora’, but still owes days from Ramadaan, his fast is valid, but if he intends to fast this day to make up for a missed Ramadaan fast, he will have two rewards: the reward for the day of ‘Arafah or ‘Ashoora’ along with the reward for making up the missed fast. This has to do with voluntary fasts in general that are not connected to Ramadaan. With regard to fasting the six days of Shawwaal, they are connected to Ramadaan and can only done after making up missed Ramadaan fasts. If he fasts them before making up missed Ramadaan fasts he will not attain that reward, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever fasts Ramadaan then follows it with six days of Shawwaal, it will be as if he fasted for a lifetime.” It is well known that whoever still owes days from Ramadaan is not regarded as having fasted Ramadaan until he makes up the days he missed.
Islam Q&A
She fasted to make up days from Ramadaan without her husband’s permission
Q) A woman made up fasting two days she missed of Ramadaan without her husband permission (she did not tell him). She felt shy to tell her husband. If it was not permissible for her to do this, should she expiate?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
A woman has to make up the days that she did not fast in Ramadaan even if that is without her husband’s knowledge, and when it comes to an obligatory fast, her husband’s permission is not essential. So the fast of the woman mentioned is valid. As for non-obligatory fasts, a woman should not fast when her husband is present except with his permission, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) forbade women to fast when their husbands are present without their permission, apart from Ramadaan.
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah li’l-Buhooth al-‘Ilmiyyah wa’l-Ifta (10/353).
A) Praise be to Allaah.
A woman has to make up the days that she did not fast in Ramadaan even if that is without her husband’s knowledge, and when it comes to an obligatory fast, her husband’s permission is not essential. So the fast of the woman mentioned is valid. As for non-obligatory fasts, a woman should not fast when her husband is present except with his permission, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) forbade women to fast when their husbands are present without their permission, apart from Ramadaan.
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions.
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah li’l-Buhooth al-‘Ilmiyyah wa’l-Ifta (10/353).
Ruling on opening one’s business on the day of kaafir festivals
Q) Is it wrong to open one's business on the days of Eid?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
There is nothing wrong with a Muslim opening his business on the day of the Muslim Eids (Eid al-Fitr and Eid al-Adha), subject to the condition that he does not sell anything that may help some people to disobey Allaah.
Secondly:
With regard to opening one’s business on days that the non-Muslims take as festivals, such as Christmas and Jewish, Buddhist or Hindu festivals, there is nothing wrong with that either, subject to the condition that you do not sell them anything that may help them in their sins, such as flags, banners, images, greetings cards, lanterns, flowers, coloured eggs and anything else they use in their festivals.
Similarly he should not sell the Muslims anything that could help them to resemble the kuffaar on their festivals.
The basic principle concerning that is that the Muslim is forbidden to commit acts of sin or help anyone else to do so. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Help you one another in Al‑Birr and At‑Taqwa (virtue, righteousness and piety); but do not help one another in sin and transgression. And fear Allaah. Verily, Allaah is Severe in punishment”
[al-Maa’idah 5:2]
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: “A Muslim should not sell things that will help the Muslims to imitate them (the kuffaar) on their festivals, such as food, clothing and so on, because that is helping in doing evil.” End quote from Iqtida’ al-Siraat al-Mustaqeem, 2/520
And he said: ‘As for Muslims selling to [the kuffaar] on their festivals the things that help them to celebrate their festivals, such as food, clothing, herbs and so on, or giving those things to them, this is a kind of helping them to establish their haraam festivals.”
It is narrated that Ibn Habeeb al-Maaliki said: “Do you not see that it is not permissible for the Muslims to sell to the Christians anything that has to do with their festivals, whether it be meat, condiments or clothing; they should not lend them mounts or help them in any part of their festivals, because that is like venerating their shirk and helping them in their kufr. The authorities should forbid the Muslims to do that. This is the view of Maalik and others, and I do not know of anyone who disagreed with that.
Iqtida’ al-Siraat al-Mustaqeem, 2/526; al-Fataawa al-Kubra, 2/489; Ahkaam Ahl al-Dhimmah, 3/1250
Shaykh al-Islam also said: If the things they buy are used to do haraam things, such as crosses, palm branches, baptismal fonts, incense, meat that has been slaughtered for anyone or anything other than Allaah, images and so on, then they are undoubtedly haraam, such as selling them juice for them to use as wine, or building churches for them.
With regard to things that they use in their festivals such as food, drink and clothing, the basic principles of Ahmad and others suggest that these are makrooh, but does makrooh mean it is haraam, as in the madhhab of Maalik, or that it is discouraged? The most likely view is that it is makrooh in the sense of being haraam, for he does not allow the sale of bread, meat and herbs to evildoers who will drink wine with them, because these things are helping them to manifest the false religion and increase the numbers of people who will gather on their festival. This is worse than helping one particular person. Al-Iqtida’, 2/2/552
Ibn Hajar al-Makki (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about selling musk to a kaafir, knowing that he is buying it to perfume his idols, or selling an animal to a kaafir knowing that he is going to kill it in an improper manner in order to eat it.
He replied:
It is haraam to sell in both cases, just as the scholars said: If the seller knows that the buyer is going to use the goods for sinful purposes, it is haraam to sell them to him. Perfuming idols and killing animals to be eaten without being slaughtered properly are two major sins, even for them, because the more correct view concerning the kaafirs is that the rulings of sharee’ah are addressed to them just as they are addressed to Muslims. So it is not permissible to help them by selling them things that may help them to do these things. Similar to knowing in this case is thinking that that will most likely happen. And Allaah knows best. End quote from al-Fataawa al-Fiqhiyyah al-Kubra, 2/270
To conclude: it is permissible for a Muslim to open his business of the days of kaafir festivals, subject to two conditions:
1 – That he does not sell them anything that can be used for sin or that will help them to celebrate their festivals.
2 – That he does not sell to the Muslims anything that will help them to imitate the kuffaar in these festivals.
Undoubtedly there are specific goods that are used for these festivals, such as greetings cards, images, statues, crosses, and certain types of trees. It is not permissible to sell these things, or to bring them into the store at all.
As for other things that may be used for this festival or for other purposes, then the business owner should do his best to work it out, and not sell them to people whose situation he knows or who thinks will most likely use them for haraam purposes or to celebrate that festival, such as clothes, perfume and foods.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
There is nothing wrong with a Muslim opening his business on the day of the Muslim Eids (Eid al-Fitr and Eid al-Adha), subject to the condition that he does not sell anything that may help some people to disobey Allaah.
Secondly:
With regard to opening one’s business on days that the non-Muslims take as festivals, such as Christmas and Jewish, Buddhist or Hindu festivals, there is nothing wrong with that either, subject to the condition that you do not sell them anything that may help them in their sins, such as flags, banners, images, greetings cards, lanterns, flowers, coloured eggs and anything else they use in their festivals.
Similarly he should not sell the Muslims anything that could help them to resemble the kuffaar on their festivals.
The basic principle concerning that is that the Muslim is forbidden to commit acts of sin or help anyone else to do so. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Help you one another in Al‑Birr and At‑Taqwa (virtue, righteousness and piety); but do not help one another in sin and transgression. And fear Allaah. Verily, Allaah is Severe in punishment”
[al-Maa’idah 5:2]
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: “A Muslim should not sell things that will help the Muslims to imitate them (the kuffaar) on their festivals, such as food, clothing and so on, because that is helping in doing evil.” End quote from Iqtida’ al-Siraat al-Mustaqeem, 2/520
And he said: ‘As for Muslims selling to [the kuffaar] on their festivals the things that help them to celebrate their festivals, such as food, clothing, herbs and so on, or giving those things to them, this is a kind of helping them to establish their haraam festivals.”
It is narrated that Ibn Habeeb al-Maaliki said: “Do you not see that it is not permissible for the Muslims to sell to the Christians anything that has to do with their festivals, whether it be meat, condiments or clothing; they should not lend them mounts or help them in any part of their festivals, because that is like venerating their shirk and helping them in their kufr. The authorities should forbid the Muslims to do that. This is the view of Maalik and others, and I do not know of anyone who disagreed with that.
Iqtida’ al-Siraat al-Mustaqeem, 2/526; al-Fataawa al-Kubra, 2/489; Ahkaam Ahl al-Dhimmah, 3/1250
Shaykh al-Islam also said: If the things they buy are used to do haraam things, such as crosses, palm branches, baptismal fonts, incense, meat that has been slaughtered for anyone or anything other than Allaah, images and so on, then they are undoubtedly haraam, such as selling them juice for them to use as wine, or building churches for them.
With regard to things that they use in their festivals such as food, drink and clothing, the basic principles of Ahmad and others suggest that these are makrooh, but does makrooh mean it is haraam, as in the madhhab of Maalik, or that it is discouraged? The most likely view is that it is makrooh in the sense of being haraam, for he does not allow the sale of bread, meat and herbs to evildoers who will drink wine with them, because these things are helping them to manifest the false religion and increase the numbers of people who will gather on their festival. This is worse than helping one particular person. Al-Iqtida’, 2/2/552
Ibn Hajar al-Makki (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about selling musk to a kaafir, knowing that he is buying it to perfume his idols, or selling an animal to a kaafir knowing that he is going to kill it in an improper manner in order to eat it.
He replied:
It is haraam to sell in both cases, just as the scholars said: If the seller knows that the buyer is going to use the goods for sinful purposes, it is haraam to sell them to him. Perfuming idols and killing animals to be eaten without being slaughtered properly are two major sins, even for them, because the more correct view concerning the kaafirs is that the rulings of sharee’ah are addressed to them just as they are addressed to Muslims. So it is not permissible to help them by selling them things that may help them to do these things. Similar to knowing in this case is thinking that that will most likely happen. And Allaah knows best. End quote from al-Fataawa al-Fiqhiyyah al-Kubra, 2/270
To conclude: it is permissible for a Muslim to open his business of the days of kaafir festivals, subject to two conditions:
1 – That he does not sell them anything that can be used for sin or that will help them to celebrate their festivals.
2 – That he does not sell to the Muslims anything that will help them to imitate the kuffaar in these festivals.
Undoubtedly there are specific goods that are used for these festivals, such as greetings cards, images, statues, crosses, and certain types of trees. It is not permissible to sell these things, or to bring them into the store at all.
As for other things that may be used for this festival or for other purposes, then the business owner should do his best to work it out, and not sell them to people whose situation he knows or who thinks will most likely use them for haraam purposes or to celebrate that festival, such as clothes, perfume and foods.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
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