Q) What is the ruling on fasting six days of Shawwaal? Is it waajib (obligatory)?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Fasting six days of Shawwaal after the obligatory fast of Ramadaan is Sunnah Mustahabbah, not waajib. It is recommended for the Muslim to fast six days of Shawwaal, and in this there is great virtue and an immense reward. Whoever fasts these six days will have recorded for him a reward as if he had fasted a whole year, as was reported in a saheeh hadeeth from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). Abu Ayyoob (may Allaah be pleased with him) reported that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever fasts Ramadaan and follows it with six days of Shawwaal, it will be as if he fasted for a lifetime.” (Narrated by Muslim, Abu Dawood, al-Tirmidhi, al-Nisaa’i and Ibn Maajah).
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) explained this when he said: “Whoever fasts for six days after (Eid) al-Fitr has completed the year: (whoever does a good deed (hasanah) will have ten hasanah like it).” According to another report: “Allaah has made for each hasanah ten like it, so a month is like fasting ten months, and fasting six days completes the year.” (al-Nisaa’i and Ibn Maajah. See also Saheeh al-Targheeb wa’l-Tarheeb, 1/421). It was also narrated by Ibn Khuzaymah with the wording: “Fasting for the month of Ramadaan brings the reward of ten like it, and fasting for six days brings the reward of two months, and that is the fasting of the whole year.”
The Hanbali and Shaafa’i fuqaha’ explained that fasting six days of Shawwaal after fasting Ramadaan makes it as if one has fasted for an entire year of obligatory fasts, because the multiplication of the reward applies even to naafil fasts, because each hasanah brings the reward of ten like it.
Another of the important benefits of fasting six days of Shawwaal is that is makes up for any shortfall in a person's obligatory Ramadaan fasts, because no one is free of shortcomings or sins that have a negative effect on his fasting. On the Day of Resurrection, some of his naafil deeds will be taken to make up the shortcomings in his obligatory deeds, as the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “The first thing for which people will be brought to account on the Day of Resurrection will be their salaah (prayer). Our Lord, may He be glorified and exalted, will say to His angels – although He knows best – ‘Look at the salaah of My slave, whether it is complete or incomplete.’ If it is perfect, it will be recorded as perfect, and if something is lacking, He will say, ‘Look and see whether My slave did any voluntary (naafil) prayers.’ If he did some voluntary prayers, [Allaah] will say, Complete the obligatory actions of My slave from his voluntary actions.’ Then all his actions will be dealt with in a similar manner.” (Narrated by Abu Dawood).
And Allaah knows best.
Sheikh Muhammed Salih Al-Munajjid
Thursday, October 16, 2008
Ruling on paying fidyah for delaying making up missed fasts before making them up
Q) A woman is asking about making up missed Ramadaan fasts and feeding the poor (as fidyah for delaying that). Should she give food for each day, or should she give food for all the days in one go after she has finished making up the days?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If a person delays making up missed Ramadaan fasts until the next Ramadaan begins, then if that was for a reason such as sickness, pregnancy or breastfeeding and the like, then he or she does not have to do anything except make up the missed days. But if there was no excuse, then he or she has sinned and must make up the missed days, but does he or she have to pay a fidyah or not? There is a difference of opinion among the scholars. The majority are of the view that the fidyah must be paid, and it is feeding one poor person for every day. In the answer to question no. 26865 we stated that the more correct view is that the fidyah is not obligatory, but the one who pays it in order to be on the safe side has done well.
This fidyah – according to those who say that it is required – becomes obligatory upon that person as soon as the next Ramadaan begins, and he may offer it at that time, or delay it until he makes up those fasts, but it is better to hasten to do it so as to fulfil his obligation.
It says in al-Mawsoo’ah al-Fiqhiyyah (28/76): Making up missed Ramadaan fasts may be done at any time but the majority of scholars limited it to a specific time frame within which they must be made up, which is before the next Ramadaan begins, because of the words of ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her): “I would owe missed Ramadaan fasts but I would not be able to make them up except in Sha’baan, because of my duties towards the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him).” This is similar to prayer, which should not be delayed until the time for the next prayer comes.
According to the majority of scholars, it is not permissible to delay making up missed Ramadaan fasts until the next Ramadaan comes without an excuse, and that doing so incurs sin, because of this hadeeth of ‘Aa’ishah. If a person delays that then he must offer the fidyah: feeding one poor person for each day, because of the report narrated from Ibn ‘Abbaas, Ibn ‘Umar and Abu Hurayrah (may Allaah be pleased with them) who said concerning the one who has to make up a missed fast but does not do so until the next Ramadaan comes: “He must make it up and feed one poor person for each day.” This fidyah is for delaying it. It is permissible to offer the food before making up the fast, at the same time, or afterwards. End quote.
Al-Mardaawi al-Hanbali (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
He should offer food that is acceptable for expiation. It is permissible to give the food before making up the fast, at the same time, or afterwards. al-Majd – meaning Ibn Taymiyah, the grandfather of Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah – said that the best is to give it beforehand, in his view, so as to hasten to do good and to rid oneself of the problem of postponing. End quote from al-Insaaf (3/333).
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If a person delays making up missed Ramadaan fasts until the next Ramadaan begins, then if that was for a reason such as sickness, pregnancy or breastfeeding and the like, then he or she does not have to do anything except make up the missed days. But if there was no excuse, then he or she has sinned and must make up the missed days, but does he or she have to pay a fidyah or not? There is a difference of opinion among the scholars. The majority are of the view that the fidyah must be paid, and it is feeding one poor person for every day. In the answer to question no. 26865 we stated that the more correct view is that the fidyah is not obligatory, but the one who pays it in order to be on the safe side has done well.
This fidyah – according to those who say that it is required – becomes obligatory upon that person as soon as the next Ramadaan begins, and he may offer it at that time, or delay it until he makes up those fasts, but it is better to hasten to do it so as to fulfil his obligation.
It says in al-Mawsoo’ah al-Fiqhiyyah (28/76): Making up missed Ramadaan fasts may be done at any time but the majority of scholars limited it to a specific time frame within which they must be made up, which is before the next Ramadaan begins, because of the words of ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her): “I would owe missed Ramadaan fasts but I would not be able to make them up except in Sha’baan, because of my duties towards the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him).” This is similar to prayer, which should not be delayed until the time for the next prayer comes.
According to the majority of scholars, it is not permissible to delay making up missed Ramadaan fasts until the next Ramadaan comes without an excuse, and that doing so incurs sin, because of this hadeeth of ‘Aa’ishah. If a person delays that then he must offer the fidyah: feeding one poor person for each day, because of the report narrated from Ibn ‘Abbaas, Ibn ‘Umar and Abu Hurayrah (may Allaah be pleased with them) who said concerning the one who has to make up a missed fast but does not do so until the next Ramadaan comes: “He must make it up and feed one poor person for each day.” This fidyah is for delaying it. It is permissible to offer the food before making up the fast, at the same time, or afterwards. End quote.
Al-Mardaawi al-Hanbali (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
He should offer food that is acceptable for expiation. It is permissible to give the food before making up the fast, at the same time, or afterwards. al-Majd – meaning Ibn Taymiyah, the grandfather of Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah – said that the best is to give it beforehand, in his view, so as to hasten to do good and to rid oneself of the problem of postponing. End quote from al-Insaaf (3/333).
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
Passing the meeqaat for one who intends to do Hajj and ‘Umrah, then goes back to it
Q) There is a pilgrim who intends to do Hajj, but he has business in Makkah then in Madeenah. He passed the meeqaat and did not enter ihraam, and he entered Makkah then he went to Madeenah, and entered ihraam from the meeqaat of Madeenah for Hajj. What is the ruling on his action?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
So long as the pilgrim went out to the meeqaat of the people of Madeenah, and came in ihraam, he does not have to do anything about his entering Makkaah previously without ihraam. But it would have been better for him to enter from his first meeqaat in ihraam.
And Allaah is the Source of strength.
Standing Committee for Academic Research and Issuing Fatwas, 11/155
A) Praise be to Allaah.
So long as the pilgrim went out to the meeqaat of the people of Madeenah, and came in ihraam, he does not have to do anything about his entering Makkaah previously without ihraam. But it would have been better for him to enter from his first meeqaat in ihraam.
And Allaah is the Source of strength.
Standing Committee for Academic Research and Issuing Fatwas, 11/155
It is essential to recite the phrases of the adhaan in order
Q) What is the ruling on one who says Hayya ‘ala al-Falaah (come to prosperity) before Hayya ‘ala al-salaah (come to prayer) in the adhaan? Please give the evidence.
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If he says Hayya ‘ala al-Falaah (come to prosperity) before Hayya ‘ala al-salaah (come to prayer), he has to repeat Hayya ‘ala al-Falaah (come to prosperity) after saying Hayya ‘ala al-salaah (come to prayer), because it is essential that the phrases of the adhaan be given in the right order. The adhaan was narrated in this particular order, so if a person inverts the phrases, he is doing something that is not in accordance with the command of Allaah and His Messenger, and the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever does something that is not in accordance with this matter of ours will have it rejected.” End quote.
Fataawa al-Tahaarah wa’l-Salaah by Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (p. 63).
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If he says Hayya ‘ala al-Falaah (come to prosperity) before Hayya ‘ala al-salaah (come to prayer), he has to repeat Hayya ‘ala al-Falaah (come to prosperity) after saying Hayya ‘ala al-salaah (come to prayer), because it is essential that the phrases of the adhaan be given in the right order. The adhaan was narrated in this particular order, so if a person inverts the phrases, he is doing something that is not in accordance with the command of Allaah and His Messenger, and the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever does something that is not in accordance with this matter of ours will have it rejected.” End quote.
Fataawa al-Tahaarah wa’l-Salaah by Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (p. 63).
Ruling on plates on which there are images
Q) What is the ruling on plates on which there are images? Please note that they are not usually used except in cases of necessity?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
The basic principle is that it is haraam to make images of animate beings, because of the evidence that has been narrated concerning that. But if the images are treated in a humiliating manner or are partial images, then it is permissible to use the things they are drawn on, such as carpets and the like.
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. End quote.
Standing Committee for Academic Research and Issuing Fatwas
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (1/677).
A) Praise be to Allaah.
The basic principle is that it is haraam to make images of animate beings, because of the evidence that has been narrated concerning that. But if the images are treated in a humiliating manner or are partial images, then it is permissible to use the things they are drawn on, such as carpets and the like.
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. End quote.
Standing Committee for Academic Research and Issuing Fatwas
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (1/677).
He said to her, “Get in the car, I will divorce you”
Q) I am a short-tempered young man, and I do not know what I am saying when I get very angry, to such an extent that I feel as if I am not myself when I get angry. My wife was with me in the car and we argued, and she got out of the car and said to me, “Divorce me,” but she did not mean what she said, because she was upset. I said to her, “Get in the car, I will divorce you”, although I did not have the slightest intention of divorcing her. What is the ruling on this?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Your saying to your wife, “Get in the car, I will divorce you” is not regarded as a divorce, rather it is a promise of divorce, so divorce has not taken place.
You have to deal with the problem of being too angry, and beware of uttering the word of divorce in all situations, even if your wife asks for it. See the answer to question no. 658.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Your saying to your wife, “Get in the car, I will divorce you” is not regarded as a divorce, rather it is a promise of divorce, so divorce has not taken place.
You have to deal with the problem of being too angry, and beware of uttering the word of divorce in all situations, even if your wife asks for it. See the answer to question no. 658.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
Monday, October 13, 2008
Should he start with the six days of Shawwaal before making up missed fasts, if there are not enough days left?
Q) Is it permissible to fast the six days of Shawwaal before making up days that I did not fast in Ramadaan, if there is not enough time left in the month to do both? May Allaah reward you with good.
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Fasting six days of Shawwaal is dependent upon having completed the Ramadaan fast, according to the correct view. This is indicated by the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him): “Whoever fasts Ramadaan then follows it with six days of Shawwaal, it will be as if he fasted a lifetime.” Narrated by Muslim, 1164.
The conjunction thumma (then) indicates that this must be done in this order. This indicates that the fast of Ramadaan must be completed first (by observing the Ramadaan fast and making up any missed fasts), then after that one may fast the six days of Shawwaal, so as to attain the reward mentioned in the hadeeth.
The one who still owes missed Ramadaan fasts is said to have fasted part of Ramadaan; we cannot say that he has fasted Ramadaan.
But if a person has an excuse that kept him from fasting the six days of Shawwaal in Shawwaal because he had to make up missed fasts – such as a woman who was bleeding followed childbirth and spent all of Shawwaal making up for Ramadaan – then she may fast six days of Shawwaal in Dhu’l-Qa’dah, because she was excused. Similarly for anyone who has an excuse it is prescribed to make up the six days of Shawwaal in Dhu’l-Qa’dah, after making up the missed Ramadaan fasts. But the one who lets the month of Shawwaal go by without fasting these days and with no excuse, will not attain this reward.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen was asked: What if a woman owes days from Ramadaan – is it permissible for her to give precedence to fasting the six days of Shawwaal over making up the days she owes, or should she give priority to the days she owes over fasting the six days of Shawwaal?
He replied: If a woman still owes days from Ramadaan, then she should not fast the six days of Shawwaal until after she has made up what she owes, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever fasts Ramadaan then follows it with six days of Shawwaal…” Whoever still has days to make up from Ramadaan has not fasted Ramadaan, so she will not attain the reward of fasting the six days of Shawwaal until after she has finished making up the days she owes. If we assume that this making up missed fasts lasts throughout Shawwaal, such as if a woman was bleeding following childbirth and did not fast at all in Ramadaan, then she started to make up her missed fasts in Shawaal and did not finish that until Dhu’l-Qa’dah began, then she may fast the six days, and she will have the reward of one who fasted them in Shawwaal, because she delayed it for a necessary reason, so she will have the reward.
Majmoo’ al-Fataawa, 20/19. See also questions no. 4082 and 7863.
In addition to that, it is obligatory to make up missed fasts for the one who had an excuse, indeed that is part of this pillar of Islam. Based on this, hastening to do it and to discharge this duty takes priority over doing actions that are mustahabb. See question no. 23429.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Fasting six days of Shawwaal is dependent upon having completed the Ramadaan fast, according to the correct view. This is indicated by the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him): “Whoever fasts Ramadaan then follows it with six days of Shawwaal, it will be as if he fasted a lifetime.” Narrated by Muslim, 1164.
The conjunction thumma (then) indicates that this must be done in this order. This indicates that the fast of Ramadaan must be completed first (by observing the Ramadaan fast and making up any missed fasts), then after that one may fast the six days of Shawwaal, so as to attain the reward mentioned in the hadeeth.
The one who still owes missed Ramadaan fasts is said to have fasted part of Ramadaan; we cannot say that he has fasted Ramadaan.
But if a person has an excuse that kept him from fasting the six days of Shawwaal in Shawwaal because he had to make up missed fasts – such as a woman who was bleeding followed childbirth and spent all of Shawwaal making up for Ramadaan – then she may fast six days of Shawwaal in Dhu’l-Qa’dah, because she was excused. Similarly for anyone who has an excuse it is prescribed to make up the six days of Shawwaal in Dhu’l-Qa’dah, after making up the missed Ramadaan fasts. But the one who lets the month of Shawwaal go by without fasting these days and with no excuse, will not attain this reward.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen was asked: What if a woman owes days from Ramadaan – is it permissible for her to give precedence to fasting the six days of Shawwaal over making up the days she owes, or should she give priority to the days she owes over fasting the six days of Shawwaal?
He replied: If a woman still owes days from Ramadaan, then she should not fast the six days of Shawwaal until after she has made up what she owes, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever fasts Ramadaan then follows it with six days of Shawwaal…” Whoever still has days to make up from Ramadaan has not fasted Ramadaan, so she will not attain the reward of fasting the six days of Shawwaal until after she has finished making up the days she owes. If we assume that this making up missed fasts lasts throughout Shawwaal, such as if a woman was bleeding following childbirth and did not fast at all in Ramadaan, then she started to make up her missed fasts in Shawaal and did not finish that until Dhu’l-Qa’dah began, then she may fast the six days, and she will have the reward of one who fasted them in Shawwaal, because she delayed it for a necessary reason, so she will have the reward.
Majmoo’ al-Fataawa, 20/19. See also questions no. 4082 and 7863.
In addition to that, it is obligatory to make up missed fasts for the one who had an excuse, indeed that is part of this pillar of Islam. Based on this, hastening to do it and to discharge this duty takes priority over doing actions that are mustahabb. See question no. 23429.
Islam Q&A
Amount of fidyah to be paid by one who is unable to fast because of old age or sickness
Q) My father did not fast during Ramadaan because he was not able to fast due to his being old and sick, then he passed away without making up the fasts of that month. We offered expiation for him by giving money to the poor, then we heard that the expiation only counts if food is given. Should we offer the expiation again, and how much should we give?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
The majority of Maaliki, Shaafa’i and Hanbali fuqaha’ are of the view that paying cash does not count as the fidyah for not fasting, and what must be given is actual food, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And as for those who can fast with difficulty, (e.g. an old man), they have (a choice either to fast or) to feed a Miskeen (poor person) (for every day)”
[al-Baqarah 2:184]
Ibn ‘Abbaas (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: This refers to old men and old women who cannot fast, so they should feed one poor person for each day. Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 4505.
It says in Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (10/198): If the doctors have stated that this sickness means that you cannot fast, and there is no hope of recovery, then you must feed one poor person for each day, giving half a saa’ of the local staple food, whether it is dates or something else, for past and future months. If you give a poor person dinner or breakfast for the number of days that you did not fast, that will be sufficient. As for giving cash, that does not count. End quote.
So the elderly or sick person for whom there is no hope of recovery should feed one poor person for each day, giving half a saa’ of wheat, dates, rice or similar local staple. That is equivalent to approximately one and a half kilograms. See Fataawa Ramadaan, p. 545.
He may give it all in one go at the end of the month, 45 kilograms of rice, for example, or if he makes some food and invites poor people to come and eat, that is good, because that is what Anas (may Allaah be pleased with him) did.
Secondly:
If you gave the fidyah in the form of cash following the view of a scholar who issued a fatwa to that effect, then you do not have to give it again. But if you did that yourselves, then you have to give it again, in order to be on the safe side and in order to honour your father, may Allaah have mercy on hi and forgive him.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
The majority of Maaliki, Shaafa’i and Hanbali fuqaha’ are of the view that paying cash does not count as the fidyah for not fasting, and what must be given is actual food, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And as for those who can fast with difficulty, (e.g. an old man), they have (a choice either to fast or) to feed a Miskeen (poor person) (for every day)”
[al-Baqarah 2:184]
Ibn ‘Abbaas (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: This refers to old men and old women who cannot fast, so they should feed one poor person for each day. Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 4505.
It says in Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (10/198): If the doctors have stated that this sickness means that you cannot fast, and there is no hope of recovery, then you must feed one poor person for each day, giving half a saa’ of the local staple food, whether it is dates or something else, for past and future months. If you give a poor person dinner or breakfast for the number of days that you did not fast, that will be sufficient. As for giving cash, that does not count. End quote.
So the elderly or sick person for whom there is no hope of recovery should feed one poor person for each day, giving half a saa’ of wheat, dates, rice or similar local staple. That is equivalent to approximately one and a half kilograms. See Fataawa Ramadaan, p. 545.
He may give it all in one go at the end of the month, 45 kilograms of rice, for example, or if he makes some food and invites poor people to come and eat, that is good, because that is what Anas (may Allaah be pleased with him) did.
Secondly:
If you gave the fidyah in the form of cash following the view of a scholar who issued a fatwa to that effect, then you do not have to give it again. But if you did that yourselves, then you have to give it again, in order to be on the safe side and in order to honour your father, may Allaah have mercy on hi and forgive him.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
He is afraid that he may lose his job and he has some money; does he have to do Hajj with it?
Q) Next year, if Allah wills, I will possess enough money to perform Hajj alone without my wife. This amount would be sufficient for urgent circumstances; especially that I work in the private sector. The company I work for might ask me to resign at any time. Do I have to perform hajj or not? Bear in mind that I have another amount of money but it is needed for my consummation (we had our marriage contract done but not consummation yet).
A) Praise be to Allaah.
In order for Hajj to be obligatory for the adult, it is stipulated that he should be financially and physically able for it, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And Hajj (pilgrimage to Makkah) to the House (Ka‘bah) is a duty that mankind owes to Allaah, those who can afford the expenses (for one’s conveyance, provision and residence)”
[Aal ‘Imraan 3:97].
The fuqaha’ interpreted financial ability as meaning that one has enough to cover food and transportation, i.e., the expenses of travel to and from the Sacred House of Allaah, if this cost is surplus to one’s basic needs and other expenditure as prescribed in sharee’ah, and to pay off his debts.
What is meant here by expenditure is that he should have enough to cover his own and his family’s maintenance until he returns, and after he returns he should have enough to suffice him and those on whom he spends, such as the rent on property or salary or trade and so on. Hence he does not have to go for Hajj using the capital of his business, if he spends on himself and his family from its profits, and if taking away from the capital will result in a reduction in profits, such that they will not be enough for him and his family. For more information on this, please see the answer to question no. 11534.
If you have the money that will be sufficient for you to do Hajj, and it is surplus to your needs, then you must go for Hajj, unless your fear of losing your job is a real fear based on strong circumstantial evidence, in which case you do not have to do Hajj. But if this fear is just an illusion and notion with no basis, then you have to do Hajj.
As for the money that you have set aside for marriage, you do not have to do Hajj with it if you fear hardship for yourself in the event of delaying your marriage, rather you should give precedence to marriage. If there is any other money, you can use that for Hajj, otherwise Hajj is not obligatory for you because you cannot afford it.
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: If he needs to get married and he fears that it will be too difficult for him otherwise, then he should give priority to that, because it is obligatory for him and he cannot do without it, so it becomes part of his essential spending. But he has no such fears, then he should give priority to Hajj, because marriage is voluntary and should not take precedence over Hajj which is obligatory.
End quote from al-Mughni (3/88).
See also the answer to question no. 27120.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
In order for Hajj to be obligatory for the adult, it is stipulated that he should be financially and physically able for it, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And Hajj (pilgrimage to Makkah) to the House (Ka‘bah) is a duty that mankind owes to Allaah, those who can afford the expenses (for one’s conveyance, provision and residence)”
[Aal ‘Imraan 3:97].
The fuqaha’ interpreted financial ability as meaning that one has enough to cover food and transportation, i.e., the expenses of travel to and from the Sacred House of Allaah, if this cost is surplus to one’s basic needs and other expenditure as prescribed in sharee’ah, and to pay off his debts.
What is meant here by expenditure is that he should have enough to cover his own and his family’s maintenance until he returns, and after he returns he should have enough to suffice him and those on whom he spends, such as the rent on property or salary or trade and so on. Hence he does not have to go for Hajj using the capital of his business, if he spends on himself and his family from its profits, and if taking away from the capital will result in a reduction in profits, such that they will not be enough for him and his family. For more information on this, please see the answer to question no. 11534.
If you have the money that will be sufficient for you to do Hajj, and it is surplus to your needs, then you must go for Hajj, unless your fear of losing your job is a real fear based on strong circumstantial evidence, in which case you do not have to do Hajj. But if this fear is just an illusion and notion with no basis, then you have to do Hajj.
As for the money that you have set aside for marriage, you do not have to do Hajj with it if you fear hardship for yourself in the event of delaying your marriage, rather you should give precedence to marriage. If there is any other money, you can use that for Hajj, otherwise Hajj is not obligatory for you because you cannot afford it.
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: If he needs to get married and he fears that it will be too difficult for him otherwise, then he should give priority to that, because it is obligatory for him and he cannot do without it, so it becomes part of his essential spending. But he has no such fears, then he should give priority to Hajj, because marriage is voluntary and should not take precedence over Hajj which is obligatory.
End quote from al-Mughni (3/88).
See also the answer to question no. 27120.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
How can the Muslim be a trial for the kaafir?
Q) Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Our Lord! Make us not a trial for the disbelievers” [al-Mumtahanah 60:5].
How can a Muslim be a trial for those who disbelieve?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
He can be a trial for those who disbelieve if the kuffaar gain power over him, because the kaafir’s gaining power over the Muslim is a trial (fitnah), as they will carry the burden of the sins they commit against us, so that is a trial for them.
The phrase “a trial for those who disbelieve” may also be understood as meaning that they try to tempt us away from our religion by means of persecution, as in the verse in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Verily, those who put into trial the believing men and believing women (by torturing them and burning them), and then do not turn in repentance (to Allaah), then they will have the torment of Hell, and they will have the punishment of the burning Fire”
[al-Burooj 85:5].
This verse includes both meanings, because the two meanings do not exclude one another. The basic principle in tafseer is that if the verse may be interpreted in two ways that do not exclude one another, then it must be interpreted in both ways. End quote.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him).
Liqaa’aat al-Baab il-Maftooh (2/106).
“Our Lord! Make us not a trial for the disbelievers” [al-Mumtahanah 60:5].
How can a Muslim be a trial for those who disbelieve?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
He can be a trial for those who disbelieve if the kuffaar gain power over him, because the kaafir’s gaining power over the Muslim is a trial (fitnah), as they will carry the burden of the sins they commit against us, so that is a trial for them.
The phrase “a trial for those who disbelieve” may also be understood as meaning that they try to tempt us away from our religion by means of persecution, as in the verse in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Verily, those who put into trial the believing men and believing women (by torturing them and burning them), and then do not turn in repentance (to Allaah), then they will have the torment of Hell, and they will have the punishment of the burning Fire”
[al-Burooj 85:5].
This verse includes both meanings, because the two meanings do not exclude one another. The basic principle in tafseer is that if the verse may be interpreted in two ways that do not exclude one another, then it must be interpreted in both ways. End quote.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him).
Liqaa’aat al-Baab il-Maftooh (2/106).
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