Monday, October 13, 2008

Amount of fidyah to be paid by one who is unable to fast because of old age or sickness

Q) My father did not fast during Ramadaan because he was not able to fast due to his being old and sick, then he passed away without making up the fasts of that month. We offered expiation for him by giving money to the poor, then we heard that the expiation only counts if food is given. Should we offer the expiation again, and how much should we give?

A) Praise be to Allaah.

Firstly:

The majority of Maaliki, Shaafa’i and Hanbali fuqaha’ are of the view that paying cash does not count as the fidyah for not fasting, and what must be given is actual food, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“And as for those who can fast with difficulty, (e.g. an old man), they have (a choice either to fast or) to feed a Miskeen (poor person) (for every day)”

[al-Baqarah 2:184]

Ibn ‘Abbaas (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: This refers to old men and old women who cannot fast, so they should feed one poor person for each day. Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 4505.

It says in Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (10/198): If the doctors have stated that this sickness means that you cannot fast, and there is no hope of recovery, then you must feed one poor person for each day, giving half a saa’ of the local staple food, whether it is dates or something else, for past and future months. If you give a poor person dinner or breakfast for the number of days that you did not fast, that will be sufficient. As for giving cash, that does not count. End quote.

So the elderly or sick person for whom there is no hope of recovery should feed one poor person for each day, giving half a saa’ of wheat, dates, rice or similar local staple. That is equivalent to approximately one and a half kilograms. See Fataawa Ramadaan, p. 545.

He may give it all in one go at the end of the month, 45 kilograms of rice, for example, or if he makes some food and invites poor people to come and eat, that is good, because that is what Anas (may Allaah be pleased with him) did.

Secondly:

If you gave the fidyah in the form of cash following the view of a scholar who issued a fatwa to that effect, then you do not have to give it again. But if you did that yourselves, then you have to give it again, in order to be on the safe side and in order to honour your father, may Allaah have mercy on hi and forgive him.

And Allaah knows best.


Islam Q&A

He is afraid that he may lose his job and he has some money; does he have to do Hajj with it?

Q) Next year, if Allah wills, I will possess enough money to perform Hajj alone without my wife. This amount would be sufficient for urgent circumstances; especially that I work in the private sector. The company I work for might ask me to resign at any time. Do I have to perform hajj or not? Bear in mind that I have another amount of money but it is needed for my consummation (we had our marriage contract done but not consummation yet).

A) Praise be to Allaah.

In order for Hajj to be obligatory for the adult, it is stipulated that he should be financially and physically able for it, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“And Hajj (pilgrimage to Makkah) to the House (Ka‘bah) is a duty that mankind owes to Allaah, those who can afford the expenses (for one’s conveyance, provision and residence)”

[Aal ‘Imraan 3:97].

The fuqaha’ interpreted financial ability as meaning that one has enough to cover food and transportation, i.e., the expenses of travel to and from the Sacred House of Allaah, if this cost is surplus to one’s basic needs and other expenditure as prescribed in sharee’ah, and to pay off his debts.

What is meant here by expenditure is that he should have enough to cover his own and his family’s maintenance until he returns, and after he returns he should have enough to suffice him and those on whom he spends, such as the rent on property or salary or trade and so on. Hence he does not have to go for Hajj using the capital of his business, if he spends on himself and his family from its profits, and if taking away from the capital will result in a reduction in profits, such that they will not be enough for him and his family. For more information on this, please see the answer to question no. 11534.

If you have the money that will be sufficient for you to do Hajj, and it is surplus to your needs, then you must go for Hajj, unless your fear of losing your job is a real fear based on strong circumstantial evidence, in which case you do not have to do Hajj. But if this fear is just an illusion and notion with no basis, then you have to do Hajj.

As for the money that you have set aside for marriage, you do not have to do Hajj with it if you fear hardship for yourself in the event of delaying your marriage, rather you should give precedence to marriage. If there is any other money, you can use that for Hajj, otherwise Hajj is not obligatory for you because you cannot afford it.

Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: If he needs to get married and he fears that it will be too difficult for him otherwise, then he should give priority to that, because it is obligatory for him and he cannot do without it, so it becomes part of his essential spending. But he has no such fears, then he should give priority to Hajj, because marriage is voluntary and should not take precedence over Hajj which is obligatory.

End quote from al-Mughni (3/88).

See also the answer to question no. 27120.

And Allaah knows best.


Islam Q&A

How can the Muslim be a trial for the kaafir?

Q) Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Our Lord! Make us not a trial for the disbelievers” [al-Mumtahanah 60:5].
How can a Muslim be a trial for those who disbelieve?

A) Praise be to Allaah.

He can be a trial for those who disbelieve if the kuffaar gain power over him, because the kaafir’s gaining power over the Muslim is a trial (fitnah), as they will carry the burden of the sins they commit against us, so that is a trial for them.

The phrase “a trial for those who disbelieve” may also be understood as meaning that they try to tempt us away from our religion by means of persecution, as in the verse in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“Verily, those who put into trial the believing men and believing women (by torturing them and burning them), and then do not turn in repentance (to Allaah), then they will have the torment of Hell, and they will have the punishment of the burning Fire”

[al-Burooj 85:5].

This verse includes both meanings, because the two meanings do not exclude one another. The basic principle in tafseer is that if the verse may be interpreted in two ways that do not exclude one another, then it must be interpreted in both ways. End quote.

Shaykh Muhammad ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him).


Liqaa’aat al-Baab il-Maftooh (2/106).

Should he respond to non-Muslims when they wish him a Happy New Year?

Q) Is it permissible for me to say to non-Muslims “And the same to you” when they wish me a Happy New Year or say Best Wishes?

A) Praise be to Allaah.

It is not permissible to greet or congratulate the kuffaar on the occasion of Christmas, New Year or any of their other holidays, and it is not permissible to respond to them when they greet us on those occasions, because they are not festivals that are prescribed in our religion, and returning their greeting is an affirmation and approval of them. The Muslim should be proud of his religion and its rulings, and he should be keen to call others and convey to them the religion of Allaah, may He be glorified and exalted.

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about the ruling on greeting the kuffaar on the occasion of Christmas and how we should respond when they greet us on this occasion. Is it permissible to go to the parties that they hold on this occasion?

Is a person sinning if he does any of the things mentioned without intending to, and he only does it to be nice, or because of or shyness or embarrassment or other reasons? Is it permissible to imitate them in that?

He replied:

Greeting the kuffaar on the occasion of Christmas or any of their other religious holidays is haraam according to scholarly consensus, as was stated by Ibn al-Qayyim in his book Ahkaam Ahl al-Dhimmah, where he says:

"Congratulating the kuffaar on the rituals that belong only to them is haraam by consensus, as is congratulating them on their festivals and fasts by saying ‘A happy festival to you’ or ‘May you enjoy your festival,’ and so on. If the one who says this has been saved from kufr, it is still forbidden. It is like congratulating someone for prostrating to the cross, or even worse than that. It is as great a sin as congratulating someone for drinking wine, or murdering someone, or having illicit sexual relations, and so on. Many of those who have no respect for their religion fall into this error; they do not realize the offensiveness of their actions. Whoever congratulates a person for his disobedience or bid’ah or kufr exposes himself to the wrath and anger of Allaah." End quote.

Congratulating the kuffaar on their religious festivals is haraam to the extent described by Ibn al-Qayyim because it implies that one accepts or approves of their rituals of kufr, even if one would not accept those things for oneself. But the Muslim should not accept the rituals of kufr or congratulate anyone else for them, because Allaah does not accept any of that at all, as He says (interpretation of the meaning):

"If you disbelieve, then verily, Allaah is not in need of you, He likes not disbelief for His slaves. And if you are grateful (by being believers), He is pleased therewith for you. .
[al-Zumar 39:7]

". . . This day, I have perfected your religion for you, completed My favour upon you, and have chosen for you Islaam as your religion . .

[al-Maa’idah 5:3]

So congratulating them is forbidden, whether they are one’s colleagues at work or otherwise.

If they greet us on the occasion of their festivals, we should not respond, because these are not our festivals, and because they are not festivals which are acceptable to Allaah. These festivals are innovations in their religions, and even those which may have been prescribed formerly have been abrogated by the religion of Islaam, with which Allaah sent Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) to the whole of mankind. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

"Whoever seeks a religion other than Islaam, it will never be accepted of him, and in the Hereafter he will be one of the losers."

[Aal ‘Imraan 3:85]

It is haraam for a Muslim to accept invitations on such occasions, because this is worse than congratulating them as it implies taking part in their celebrations. Similarly, Muslims are forbidden to imitate the kuffaar by having parties on such occasions, or exchanging gifts, or giving out sweets or food, or taking time off work, etc., because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: "Whoever imitates a people is one of them." Shaykh al-Islaam Ibn Taymiyah said in his book Iqtidaa’ al-Siraat al-Mustaqeem Mukhaalifat Ashaab al-Jaheem: "Imitating them in some of their festivals implies that one is pleased with their false beliefs and practices, and gives them the hope that they may have the opportunity to humiliate and mislead the weak

End quote from Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 3/44.

And Allaah knows best.


Islam Q&A

He used to masturbate and pray without doing ghusl – does he have to make up those prayers?

Q) I used to masturbate since I reached puberty and I did not know that it is haraam, and I used to pray without doing ghusl. Now I have repented, praise be to Allaah. My question is: should I make up the prayers that I missed with every obligatory prayer, or should I offer them all at one time? Should I offer them in order i.e., should I start with Fajr first and then Zuhr and so on?

A) Praise be to Allaah.

Deliberately praying without having purified oneself is a grave sin, and the one who does that comes under the same ruling as one who does not pray, because he has failed to do something without which his prayer is not valid.

Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: The ruling on not doing wudoo’ or ghusl in the case of janaabah, and not facing the qiblah when praying, and not covering the ‘awrah, is the same as the ruling on the one who does not pray. Similarly the ruling on not standing, bowing or prostrating when one is able to do so is like the ruling on not praying. End quote from al-Salaah wa Hukm Taarikiha, p. 42.

It seems from your question that you did not do ghusl in the case of janaabah because you were unaware that it is obligatory. The scholars differed concerning one who does that – does he have to repeat the prayer or not?

This has been discussed in the answer to question no. 9446 and 45648.

If it never occurred to you that it is obligatory to do ghusl after masturbating, then we hope that you do not have to make up the previous prayers, but you have to repent and be righteous, and do a lot of good deeds. Allaah say (interpretation of the meaning):

“And verily, I am indeed forgiving to him who repents, believes (in My Oneness, and associates none in worship with Me) and does righteous good deeds, and then remains constant in doing them (till his death)”

[Ta-Ha 20:82]

And Allaah knows best.


Islam Q&A

Ruling on students standing up to greet the teacher when he enters the classroom

Q) It is customary for the students to stand up out of respect for the teacher when he enters the classroom. Is that permissible?

A) Praise be to Allaah.

Al-Tirmidhi (2754) narrated that Anas (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: “No person was dearer to them than the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). When they saw him, they did not stand up, because they knew that he disliked that.” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi.

The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) disliked them to stand up for him, out of humility towards his Lord, and so as to differ from the custom of the arrogant and tyrants. Tuhfat al-Ahwadhi.

The scholars of the Standing Committee for Issuing Fatwas were asked: What is the Islamic ruling on students standing up for their teachers when they enter the classroom? Is it permissible or not?

They replied:

The best of guidance is the guidance of Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and the worst of matters are those which are innovated. The best of generations is that to whom the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) came, and the generations who came after him, as is proven from him (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). His practice with his companions with regard to this matter was that when he came to them, they did not stand up for him, because they knew that he disliked that. So this teacher should not tell his students to stand up for him, and they should not obey him if he tells them to do that, because there is no obedience to any created being if it involves disobedience towards the Creator.

And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. End quote.

Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (1/172).

And Allaah knows best.


Islam Q&A

Friday, October 10, 2008

If a person did not fast at all in Ramadaan, does he have to make up 30 days or the number of days that were in the month?

Q) During Ramadaan my wife was bleeding following childbirth and she did not fast any day at all. She wants to make them up in sha Allaah later on. My question is, should she make up the number of days that the people fasted during this month, i.e., if the month was only 29 or 28 days, and did not reach 30 days, should she make up what the people fasted, or does she have to fast 30 days whatever the case?

A) Praise be to Allaah.

If a Muslim did not fast at all in Ramadaan, because of an excuse such as travelling, sickness or nifaas (postpartum bleeding), then he (or she) has to make up the number of days, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“but if any of you is ill or on a journey, the same number (should be made up) from other days”

[al-Baqarah 2:184]

If Ramadaan was complete, then he should make up thirty days, and if it was twenty-nine days, he should make up that number. It is not possible for a lunar hijri month to be twenty-eight days.

Some scholars are of the view that he should make it up as thirty days, or fast for a lunar month. It says in al-Insaaf (3/333): If a person has missed Ramadaan entirely, whether the month was complete (thirty days) or not (twenty-nine days), because of an excuse such as being held prisoner and the like, he should make up the number of days whatever it is, like the numbers of prayers, according to the correct view. According to al-Qaadi, if he fasts for a lunar month that will be sufficient, whether it is complete or not. If he does not fast for a month then he should fast for thirty days.

Based on the former opinion, whoever fasts twenty-nine days from the beginning of a complete month or from the middle of a month, if the Ramadaan that he missed was twenty-nine days, this is sufficient, based on the number of days. According to the second view, he should fast an extra day so as either to complete the month or the number of thirty days. End quote.

It says in Manh al-Jaleel (2/152): If a person does not fast in Ramadaan at all and the month was thirty days, and he makes it up during a lunar month that turns out to be twenty-nine days, then he should fast another day. But if it is the other way round, he does not have to fast the last day, because Allaah says, “the same number (should be made up) from other days”. This is the well known view. Ibn Wahb said: If he fasts following the lunar month whatever he fasts will be sufficient, even if the month is twenty-nine days and Ramadaan was thirty days. End quote.

Conclusion: Your wife should make up the number of days of the month, even if it was twenty-nine days.

And Allaah knows best.


Islam Q&A

Fasting is not unique to this ummah

Q) Is the month of Ramadaan unique to this ummah or was it for the previous nations too?

A) Praise be to Allaah.

Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“O you who believe! Observing As-Sawm (the fasting) is prescribed for you as it was prescribed for those before you, that you may become Al-Muttaqoon (the pious)”

[al-Baqarah 2:183].

This verse indicates that fasting is an ancient act of worship that was enjoined upon those who came before us just as it is enjoined upon us. But were they asked to fast in Ramadaan or at other times? I do not know of any statement of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) concerning that. End quote.


Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz (15/7)

Ruling on one who gives charity and zakaah only with the aim of making his wealth grow

Q) I only give zakaah or charity with the aim of making my wealth grow and increasing the barakah in it. What is your advice?

A) Praise be to Allaah.

There is nothing wrong with that, as Allaah pointed out something like that in the words of Nooh to his people (interpretation of the meaning):

“I [Nooh] said (to them): ‘Ask forgiveness from your Lord, verily, He is Oft‑Forgiving;

11. ‘He will send rain to you in abundance,

12. ‘And give you increase in wealth and children, and bestow on you gardens and bestow on you rivers”

[Nooh 71:10-12].

And the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said:
“Wealth never decreases because of charity.”

And he (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever would like to have his lifespan extended and his provision increased, let him uphold his ties of kinship.”

Allaah has only stipulated these worldly benefits in order to encourage people, because if they are encouraged they will do these good deeds, and the one who is seeking the Hereafter will attain benefits in this world and in the Hereafter, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“Whosoever desires (by his deeds) the reward of the Hereafter, We give him increase in his reward”[al-Shoora 42:20], i.e., We will give him reward in this world and in the Hereafter. As for only doing acts of worship in the hope of gaining worldly benefits only, this is undoubtedly a shortcoming in intention which is caused by love of this world in the heart of the one who does that. End quote.

Shaykh Muhammad ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him).


Liqaa’aat al-Baab il-Maftooh (3/505).

Does janaazah prayer in al-Haram al-Makki bring a multiple reward?

Q) What about janaazah (funeral) prayer in al-Haram (in Makkah) – does it bring a multiple reward?

A) Praise be to Allaah.

It is proven from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) that prayer in al-Masjid al-Haraam is better than a hundred thousand prayers (offered elsewhere). See Irwa’ al-Ghaleel 91129).

The scholars differed as to whether this multiple reward applies only to the five prescribed prayers or does it include others as well?

Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in Sharh Muslim: It should be noted that our view is that the superiority of prayer in these two mosques does not apply only to the obligatory prayers, rather it includes both obligatory and naafil (supererogatory) prayers. This is the view of Mutarrif among the companions of Maalik. Al-Tahhaawi said: It applies only to the obligatory prayers, but this is contrary to the general meaning of these saheeh ahaadeeth. And Allaah knows best. End quote.

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: Does janaazah prayer in al-Haram al-Makki bring a multiple reward like other prayers?

He replied: There is a difference of opinion among the scholars concerning this. Some scholars say that what brings the multiple reward in al-Masjid al-Haraam is the five daily prayers only, and other prayers do not bring the multiple reward. What appears to be the case from the apparent meaning of the hadeeth is that it includes all prayers, and the janaazah prayer is included in this general meaning of the reward for prayers in al-Masjid al-Haraam being multiplied. And Allaah knows best. End quote from Liqa’ al-baab il-Maftooh (116/11).

And Allaah knows best.


Islam Q&A