Q) I know that it is better for women to pray at home, but my question has to do with the Eid prayer. Is it better for women to go out to the Eid prayer or to stay at home?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
It is better for women to go out to the Eid prayer. This was enjoined by the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him).
Al-Bukhaari (324) and Muslim (890) narrated that Umm ‘Atiyyah (may Allaah be pleased with her) said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) commanded us to bring them (women) out on (Eid) al-Fitr and (Eid) al-Adha, and to bring out adolescent girls, menstruating women and virgins, but the menstruating women were to stay away from the prayer, but were to witness goodness and the gathering of the Muslims. I said: “O Messenger of Allaah, what if one of us does not have a jilbaab?” He said: “Let her sister lend her a jilbab.”
Al-Haafiz said:
This shows that it is mustahabb for women to come out and attend the Eid prayers, whether they are young or not.
Al-Shawkaani said:
This and similar hadeeths indicate that it is prescribed in sharee’ah for women to come out to the prayer-place, with no differentiation between virgins and non-virgins, young or old, menstruating or otherwise, so long as they are not going through ‘iddah (following divorce or death of their husband) or their coming out will be a cause of fitnah or they have an excuse.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen was asked: what is better for a woman, to come out to the Eid prayer or to stay at home?
He replied:
It is better for them to go out to Eid prayer, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) enjoined that the women go out to the Eid prayer, even the adolescent girls and virgins – i.e., women who do not ordinarily go out. He commanded them to go out, and he told the menstruating women to go out but to keep away from the prayer-place. So menstruating women should go out with other women for Eid, but they should not enter the place where the Eid prayer is offered, because the Eid prayer-place is a mosque and it is not permissible for a menstruating woman to stay there, but it is permissible for her to pass through or to take something she needs from it, without staying there. Based on this we say: women are commanded to go out to the Eid prayer and join the men in this prayer, because of the goodness, dhikr and du’aa’ they may experience there.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 16/210.
He also said:
But they must go out looking decent, not wearing adornment, makeup or perfume, so that they may combine following the Sunnah with avoiding fitnah.
What some women do of wearing adornment, makeup and perfume is because of their ignorance and negligence on the part of their guardians. This does not cancel out the general shar’i ruling, which is that women are commanded to go out to the Eid prayer.
Islam Q&A
Tuesday, September 30, 2008
It is permissible to fast on the second day of Shawwaal?
Q) Is it permissible to make up a missed fast on the second or third day of Eid?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Eid al-Fitr lasts for just one day, which is the first day of Shawwaal.
With regard to the commonly-held belief among people, that Eid al-Fitr lasts for three days, this is merely a custom that is known among the people, and has nothing to do with any shar’i rulings.
Al-Bukhaari (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
Chapter: Fasting on the day of al-Fitr.
Then he narrated (1992) that Abu Sa’eed (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) forbade fasting on the day of al-Fitr and al-Nahr.
Based on this, the day of al-Fitr is just one day, on which it is haraam to fast, As for the second and third days of Shawwaal, it is not haraam to fast those days; it is permissible to fast it to make up a missed Ramadaan fast or as a voluntary fast.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Eid al-Fitr lasts for just one day, which is the first day of Shawwaal.
With regard to the commonly-held belief among people, that Eid al-Fitr lasts for three days, this is merely a custom that is known among the people, and has nothing to do with any shar’i rulings.
Al-Bukhaari (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
Chapter: Fasting on the day of al-Fitr.
Then he narrated (1992) that Abu Sa’eed (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) forbade fasting on the day of al-Fitr and al-Nahr.
Based on this, the day of al-Fitr is just one day, on which it is haraam to fast, As for the second and third days of Shawwaal, it is not haraam to fast those days; it is permissible to fast it to make up a missed Ramadaan fast or as a voluntary fast.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
Monday, September 29, 2008
It is permissible to pay zakaat al-fitr in the form of flour
Q) Is it permissible for a person to pay zakaat al-fitr in the form of flour?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Zakaat al-fitr must be given in form of the people’s staple food. Based on this, there is nothing wrong with giving it in the form of flour.
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Mughni (2/357): It is permissible to give flour. This was stated by Ahmad. End quote.
Abu Dawood (618) narrated from Abu Sa’eed al-Khudri (may Allaah be pleased with him) that they used to give a saa’ of flour for zakaat al-fitr, but this is a da’eef (weak) hadeeth which was classed as such by Abu Dawood and others. See: Irwa’ al-Ghaleel (848).
The fact that the hadeeth was classed as da’eef does not mean that it is not permissible to give flour, because what is required, as stated abode, is to give what the people eat as their staple food. Hence Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in I’laam al-Muwaqqi’een (3/12) after confirming that zakaat al-fitr should be given in the form of the people’s staple food, whatever it is: Based on that, it is acceptable to give flour, even if it is not mentioned in the saheeh hadeeth. End quote.
The view that it is permissible to give flour for zakaat al-fitr is the view of Abu Haneefah and Ahmad (may Allaah have mercy on them), and it was the view favoured by Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah. Among contemporary scholars it was viewed as most correct by Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen.
The scholars – such as Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah in Majmoo’ al-Fataawa (25/69) and al-Mardaawi in al-Insaaf (3/180) – have drawn attention to the fact that flour must be given by weight, i.e. equivalent to the weight of a saa’ of grain, because a saa’ of flour may be less than a saa’ of grain, so if a person gives a saa’ of flour it may be less than a saa’ of grain, and that is not permissible.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Sharh al-Mumti’ (6/179): If he gives a saa’ of wheat or barley flour, that is acceptable, but that is based on the idea that what counts with regard to flour is weight, because when grains are ground, they become less dense, so a saa’ of flour is nearly one-sixth less than a saa’ of grain. End quote.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Zakaat al-fitr must be given in form of the people’s staple food. Based on this, there is nothing wrong with giving it in the form of flour.
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Mughni (2/357): It is permissible to give flour. This was stated by Ahmad. End quote.
Abu Dawood (618) narrated from Abu Sa’eed al-Khudri (may Allaah be pleased with him) that they used to give a saa’ of flour for zakaat al-fitr, but this is a da’eef (weak) hadeeth which was classed as such by Abu Dawood and others. See: Irwa’ al-Ghaleel (848).
The fact that the hadeeth was classed as da’eef does not mean that it is not permissible to give flour, because what is required, as stated abode, is to give what the people eat as their staple food. Hence Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in I’laam al-Muwaqqi’een (3/12) after confirming that zakaat al-fitr should be given in the form of the people’s staple food, whatever it is: Based on that, it is acceptable to give flour, even if it is not mentioned in the saheeh hadeeth. End quote.
The view that it is permissible to give flour for zakaat al-fitr is the view of Abu Haneefah and Ahmad (may Allaah have mercy on them), and it was the view favoured by Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah. Among contemporary scholars it was viewed as most correct by Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen.
The scholars – such as Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah in Majmoo’ al-Fataawa (25/69) and al-Mardaawi in al-Insaaf (3/180) – have drawn attention to the fact that flour must be given by weight, i.e. equivalent to the weight of a saa’ of grain, because a saa’ of flour may be less than a saa’ of grain, so if a person gives a saa’ of flour it may be less than a saa’ of grain, and that is not permissible.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Sharh al-Mumti’ (6/179): If he gives a saa’ of wheat or barley flour, that is acceptable, but that is based on the idea that what counts with regard to flour is weight, because when grains are ground, they become less dense, so a saa’ of flour is nearly one-sixth less than a saa’ of grain. End quote.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
Which is better: praying qiyaam or reading Qur’aan?
Q) Which is better if one stays up at night: praying or reading Qur’aan?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Praying is better than reading Qur’aan outside of prayer. This was stated by the imams. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Adhere to righteousness even though you will not able to do all acts of virtue. Know that the best of your deeds is prayer and that no one maintains his wudoo’ except a believer.” But if a person feels more focused and ponders and understands better when he reads Qur’aan outside of prayer, then in his case it is better to do that which is more beneficial for him. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (23/62).
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Praying is better than reading Qur’aan outside of prayer. This was stated by the imams. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Adhere to righteousness even though you will not able to do all acts of virtue. Know that the best of your deeds is prayer and that no one maintains his wudoo’ except a believer.” But if a person feels more focused and ponders and understands better when he reads Qur’aan outside of prayer, then in his case it is better to do that which is more beneficial for him. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (23/62).
“There is no i’tikaaf except in the three mosque”
Q) I heard a hadeeth which says that i’tikaaf is only valid in al-Masjid al-Haraam (in Makkah), al-Masjid al-Nabawi (in Madeenah) and al-Masjid al-Aqsa (in Jerusalem). Is this hadeeth saheeh?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
The hadeeth to which the questioner is referring was narrated by al-Bayhaqi (4/315) from Hudhayfah, who said to ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Mas’ood (may Allaah be pleased with him): I saw some people who were observing i’tikaaf between your house and the house of Abu Moosa (i.e., in the mosque) and I know that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “There is no i’tikaaf except in the three mosques: al-Masjid al-Haraam…” ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Mas’ood said: Perhaps you forgot and they remembered, or you made a mistake and they were correct.
This was classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Silsilat al-Ahaadeeth al-Saheehah (2876).
Secondly: With regard to the ruling on this matter, the majority of scholars are of the view that it is not essential for i’tikaaf to be observed in one of the three mosques. They quoted as evidence for that the verse in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): “And do not have sexual relations with them (your wives) while you are in I‘tikaaf (i.e. confining oneself in a mosque for prayers and invocations leaving the worldly activities) in the mosques” [al-Baqarah 2:187] The word masaajid in this verse includes all mosques, except those of which the evidence states that i’tikaaf is not valid therein, such as mosques in which prayers are not held in congregation, if the person who is observing i’tikaaf is one of those on whom prayer in congregation is obligatory. See question no. ( 48985 ) Imam al-Bukhaari referred to the general meaning of the verse. He said:
Chapter: I’tikaaf during the last ten days (of Ramadaan) and i’tikaaf in any mosque. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): “And do not have sexual relations with them (your wives) while you are in I‘tikaaf (i.e. confining oneself in a mosque for prayers and invocations leaving the worldly activities) in the mosques. These are the limits (set) by Allaah, so approach them not. Thus does Allaah make clear His Ayaat (proofs, evidences, lessons, signs, revelations, verses, laws, legal and illegal things, Allaah’s set limits, orders, etc.) to mankind that they may become Al-Muttaqoon (the pious” [al-Baqarah 2:187].
The Muslims continued to observe i’tikaaf in the mosques in their countries, as was mentioned by al-Tahhaawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) in Mushkil al-Athaar, 4/205.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about the ruling on i’tikaaf in the three mosques: al-Masjid al-Haraam (in Makkah), al-Masjid al-Nabawi (in Madeenah) and al-Masjid al-Aqsa (in Jerusalem).
He replied:
I’tikaaf in mosques other than the three mosques – al-Masjid al-Haraam (in Makkah), al-Masjid al-Nabawi (in Madeenah) and al-Masjid al-Aqsa (in Jerusalem) – is prescribed at the appropriate time, and is not limited to the three mosques. It may be observed in those mosques or in others. This is the view of the imams of the Muslims and the imams of the madhhabs that are followed, such as Imam Ahmad, Maalik, al-Shaafa’i, Abu Haneefah and others – may Allaah have mercy on them – because of the words of Allaah (interpretation of the meaning):
“And do not have sexual relations with them (your wives) while you are in I‘tikaaf (i.e. confining oneself in a mosque for prayers and invocations leaving the worldly activities) in the mosques. These are the limits (set) by Allaah, so approach them not. Thus does Allaah make clear His Ayaat (proofs, evidences, lessons, signs, revelations, verses, laws, legal and illegal things, Allaah’s set limits, orders, etc.) to mankind that they may become Al-Muttaqoon (the pious)”
[al-Baqarah 2:187]
And because the word masaajid (mosques) is general in meaning and includes all mosques throughout the world. This sentence appears at the end of the verses on fasting, the ruling of which applies to the whole ummah in all regions. So it is addressed to all those to whom the ruling on fasting is addressed. Hence these rulings end with the words (interpretation of the meaning):
“These are the limits (set) by Allaah, so approach them not. Thus does Allaah make clear His Ayaat (proofs, evidences, lessons, signs, revelations, verses, laws, legal and illegal things, Allaah’s set limits, orders, etc.) to mankind that they may become Al-Muttaqoon (the pious)”
[al-Baqarah 2:187]
It is extremely unlikely that Allaah would address the ummah with words that only include a very few of them.
With regard to the hadeeth of Hudhayfah ibn al-Yamaan (may Allaah be pleased with him): “There is no i’tikaaf except in the three mosques,” even if we assume that this hadeeth is free from faults, it is referring to the most perfect of i’tikaaf, i.e., that which is observed in the three mosques, because of their honoured status and superiority over others. This usage occurs frequently, where the negative is a statement that something is incomplete, not a denial of its validity. For example the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “There is no prayer in the presence of food,” etc. Undoubtedly the basic principle with regard to negative statements is to negate or deny, but if there is evidence to the contrary then that evidence should be followed, as in the hadeeth of Hudhayfah. This is if we assume that it is free of faults. And Allaah knows best.
Fataawa al-Siyaam (p. 493).
Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: How sound is the hadeeth “There is no i’tikaaf except in the three mosques”? If the hadeeth is saheeh, does that in fact mean that i’tikaaf can only be observed in the three mosques?
He replied:
I’tikaaf is valid in mosques other than the three mosques, but it is essential that the mosque in which i’tikaaf is observed is a mosque in which prayers are held in congregation. If no prayers are held in congregation there, then it is not valid to observe i’tikaaf there. But if a person has vowed to observe i’tikaaf in one of the three mosques then he is obliged to do so in fulfillment of his vow.
Majmoo’ Fataawa Ibn Baaz, 15/444.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
The hadeeth to which the questioner is referring was narrated by al-Bayhaqi (4/315) from Hudhayfah, who said to ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Mas’ood (may Allaah be pleased with him): I saw some people who were observing i’tikaaf between your house and the house of Abu Moosa (i.e., in the mosque) and I know that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “There is no i’tikaaf except in the three mosques: al-Masjid al-Haraam…” ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Mas’ood said: Perhaps you forgot and they remembered, or you made a mistake and they were correct.
This was classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Silsilat al-Ahaadeeth al-Saheehah (2876).
Secondly: With regard to the ruling on this matter, the majority of scholars are of the view that it is not essential for i’tikaaf to be observed in one of the three mosques. They quoted as evidence for that the verse in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): “And do not have sexual relations with them (your wives) while you are in I‘tikaaf (i.e. confining oneself in a mosque for prayers and invocations leaving the worldly activities) in the mosques” [al-Baqarah 2:187] The word masaajid in this verse includes all mosques, except those of which the evidence states that i’tikaaf is not valid therein, such as mosques in which prayers are not held in congregation, if the person who is observing i’tikaaf is one of those on whom prayer in congregation is obligatory. See question no. ( 48985 ) Imam al-Bukhaari referred to the general meaning of the verse. He said:
Chapter: I’tikaaf during the last ten days (of Ramadaan) and i’tikaaf in any mosque. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): “And do not have sexual relations with them (your wives) while you are in I‘tikaaf (i.e. confining oneself in a mosque for prayers and invocations leaving the worldly activities) in the mosques. These are the limits (set) by Allaah, so approach them not. Thus does Allaah make clear His Ayaat (proofs, evidences, lessons, signs, revelations, verses, laws, legal and illegal things, Allaah’s set limits, orders, etc.) to mankind that they may become Al-Muttaqoon (the pious” [al-Baqarah 2:187].
The Muslims continued to observe i’tikaaf in the mosques in their countries, as was mentioned by al-Tahhaawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) in Mushkil al-Athaar, 4/205.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about the ruling on i’tikaaf in the three mosques: al-Masjid al-Haraam (in Makkah), al-Masjid al-Nabawi (in Madeenah) and al-Masjid al-Aqsa (in Jerusalem).
He replied:
I’tikaaf in mosques other than the three mosques – al-Masjid al-Haraam (in Makkah), al-Masjid al-Nabawi (in Madeenah) and al-Masjid al-Aqsa (in Jerusalem) – is prescribed at the appropriate time, and is not limited to the three mosques. It may be observed in those mosques or in others. This is the view of the imams of the Muslims and the imams of the madhhabs that are followed, such as Imam Ahmad, Maalik, al-Shaafa’i, Abu Haneefah and others – may Allaah have mercy on them – because of the words of Allaah (interpretation of the meaning):
“And do not have sexual relations with them (your wives) while you are in I‘tikaaf (i.e. confining oneself in a mosque for prayers and invocations leaving the worldly activities) in the mosques. These are the limits (set) by Allaah, so approach them not. Thus does Allaah make clear His Ayaat (proofs, evidences, lessons, signs, revelations, verses, laws, legal and illegal things, Allaah’s set limits, orders, etc.) to mankind that they may become Al-Muttaqoon (the pious)”
[al-Baqarah 2:187]
And because the word masaajid (mosques) is general in meaning and includes all mosques throughout the world. This sentence appears at the end of the verses on fasting, the ruling of which applies to the whole ummah in all regions. So it is addressed to all those to whom the ruling on fasting is addressed. Hence these rulings end with the words (interpretation of the meaning):
“These are the limits (set) by Allaah, so approach them not. Thus does Allaah make clear His Ayaat (proofs, evidences, lessons, signs, revelations, verses, laws, legal and illegal things, Allaah’s set limits, orders, etc.) to mankind that they may become Al-Muttaqoon (the pious)”
[al-Baqarah 2:187]
It is extremely unlikely that Allaah would address the ummah with words that only include a very few of them.
With regard to the hadeeth of Hudhayfah ibn al-Yamaan (may Allaah be pleased with him): “There is no i’tikaaf except in the three mosques,” even if we assume that this hadeeth is free from faults, it is referring to the most perfect of i’tikaaf, i.e., that which is observed in the three mosques, because of their honoured status and superiority over others. This usage occurs frequently, where the negative is a statement that something is incomplete, not a denial of its validity. For example the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “There is no prayer in the presence of food,” etc. Undoubtedly the basic principle with regard to negative statements is to negate or deny, but if there is evidence to the contrary then that evidence should be followed, as in the hadeeth of Hudhayfah. This is if we assume that it is free of faults. And Allaah knows best.
Fataawa al-Siyaam (p. 493).
Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: How sound is the hadeeth “There is no i’tikaaf except in the three mosques”? If the hadeeth is saheeh, does that in fact mean that i’tikaaf can only be observed in the three mosques?
He replied:
I’tikaaf is valid in mosques other than the three mosques, but it is essential that the mosque in which i’tikaaf is observed is a mosque in which prayers are held in congregation. If no prayers are held in congregation there, then it is not valid to observe i’tikaaf there. But if a person has vowed to observe i’tikaaf in one of the three mosques then he is obliged to do so in fulfillment of his vow.
Majmoo’ Fataawa Ibn Baaz, 15/444.
Islam Q&A
He did ‘umrah during the day in Ramadaan and felt tired and exhausted so he broke his fast
Q) I have a brother who is 18 and a sister who is 17. They went one day in Ramadaan after Fajr and started to do ‘Umrah, but they felt so tired and exhausted when they were doing saa’i that they thought they were going to die, so they drank some water whilst they were doing saa’i. What should they do, because that was three years ago?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If your brother and sister had done ‘umrah and they were travelling, there is nothing wrong with them breaking the fast, because it is permissible for the traveller to break the fast in Ramadaan, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“and whoever is ill or on a journey, the same number [of days which one did not observe Sawm (fasts) must be made up] from other days”
[al-Baqarah 2:185]
But if they were not travelling and they broke their fast because of the tiredness and exhaustion that you mention and because they were afraid they might die, there is no sin on them for that, because Allaah has granted a concession allowing the sick person not to fast, so whoever finds himself experiencing such hardship comes under the same ruling as one who is sick.
In either case (whether they were travelling or not), there is no blame or sin on them, but they have to make up a day to replace that day.
As for their ‘umrah, if they did all the obligatory and essential parts of it, then it is valid in sha Allaah.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
If your brother and sister had done ‘umrah and they were travelling, there is nothing wrong with them breaking the fast, because it is permissible for the traveller to break the fast in Ramadaan, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“and whoever is ill or on a journey, the same number [of days which one did not observe Sawm (fasts) must be made up] from other days”
[al-Baqarah 2:185]
But if they were not travelling and they broke their fast because of the tiredness and exhaustion that you mention and because they were afraid they might die, there is no sin on them for that, because Allaah has granted a concession allowing the sick person not to fast, so whoever finds himself experiencing such hardship comes under the same ruling as one who is sick.
In either case (whether they were travelling or not), there is no blame or sin on them, but they have to make up a day to replace that day.
As for their ‘umrah, if they did all the obligatory and essential parts of it, then it is valid in sha Allaah.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
Saturday, September 27, 2008
Paying zakaah al-fitr one week before Eid
Q) I paid zakaah al-fitr more than a week before Eid. Is that valid? If it is not valid, then what should I do?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
The scholars differed concerning the earliest time when zakaah al-fitr may be paid, and there are several views.
1 – That it should be paid two days before Eid. This is the view of the Maalikis and Hanbalis. They quoted as evidence the hadeeth of Ibn ‘Umar (may Allaah be pleased with him) who said: They used to give (zakaat) al-fitr one or two days before (Eid). Narrated by al-Bukhaari (1511).
Some of them said it may be given three days before Eid, because of the report in al-Mudawwanah (1/385) according to which Maalik said: Naafi’ told me that Ibn ‘Umar used to send zakaat al-fitr to the one who was collecting it two or three days before (Eid) al-Fitr.
This view was favoured by Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) as it says in Majmoo’ al-Fataawa (14/216).
2 –That it is permissible to give it from the beginning of Ramadaan. This is the view of the Hanafis and is the correct view according to the Shaafa’is. See: al-Umm (2/75), al-Majmoo’ (6/87) and Badaa’i’ al_Sanaa’i’ (2/74).
They said: because the reason for giving charity is fasting and then breaking the fast, so if one of these two reasons is present it is permissible to hasten it, just as it is permissible to hasten giving the zakaah of one's wealth after taking possession of the nisaab and before one full year has passed.
3 – That it is permissible to give it from the beginning of the year. This is the view of some of the Hanafis and some of the Shaafa’is. They said: because it is zakaah and they likened it to the zakaah of one’s wealth with regard to paying it in advance in all cases.
The most correct view is the first one.
Ibn Qudaamah said in al-Mughni (2/676):
The reason why it is obligatory is the breaking of the fast, which is indicated by the fact that it is mentioned in conjunction with it. The purpose behind it is to make the poor independent of means at a specific time, and it is not permissible to pay it in advance of that time. End quote.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn Saalih al-‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked, as it says in Majmoo’ al-Fataawa (18/zakaat al-fitr/question no. 180):
I paid zakaat al-fitr at the beginning of Ramadaan in Egypt before I came to Makkah, and now I am staying in Makkah al-Mukarramah. Do I have to pay zakaat al-fitr?
He replied:
Yes, you have to pay zakaat al-fitr, because you paid it before its time came. The phrase “zakaat al-fitr” is composed of two words, which explains the reason for the zakaah, which is breaking the fast (fitr).
So zakaat al-fitr is mentioned in conjunction with the fitr (breaking of the fast) because that is the reason for it, and it is known that breaking the fast of Ramadaan occurs only on the last day of Ramadaan, so it is not permissible to pay zakaat al-fitr except when the sun has set on the last day of Ramadaan, except that there is a concession allowing it to be paid one or two days before. Otherwise the proper time for it is after sunset on the last day of Ramadaan, because that is the time when the Ramadaan fast is to be broken. Hence we say that it is better to pay it on the morning of Eid if possible. End quote.
Secondly:
It is permissible to give zakaat al-fitr to a deputy to pay it on your behalf through a charity or trustworthy people etc at the beginning of the month, so long as you stipulate to the deputy that it is to be paid one or two days before Eid, because the proper way of paying it is to give it to poor and needy people who are entitled to it; this is what is mentioned in sharee’ah, that it is limited to one or two days before Eid. Acting as someone’s deputy in paying it comes under the heading of cooperating in righteousness and piety, and there is no time limit for that.
This has been discussed in the answer to question no. 10526.
To conclude: Paying zakaat al-fitr one week before Eid is not valid, and you have to pay it again, unless you gave it to someone whom you delegated to pay it such as a charitable organization that will pay it at the proper time, one or two days before Eid. In that case you have done what is required of you and it is regarded as zakaah that is valid and acceptable in sha Allaah.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
The scholars differed concerning the earliest time when zakaah al-fitr may be paid, and there are several views.
1 – That it should be paid two days before Eid. This is the view of the Maalikis and Hanbalis. They quoted as evidence the hadeeth of Ibn ‘Umar (may Allaah be pleased with him) who said: They used to give (zakaat) al-fitr one or two days before (Eid). Narrated by al-Bukhaari (1511).
Some of them said it may be given three days before Eid, because of the report in al-Mudawwanah (1/385) according to which Maalik said: Naafi’ told me that Ibn ‘Umar used to send zakaat al-fitr to the one who was collecting it two or three days before (Eid) al-Fitr.
This view was favoured by Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) as it says in Majmoo’ al-Fataawa (14/216).
2 –That it is permissible to give it from the beginning of Ramadaan. This is the view of the Hanafis and is the correct view according to the Shaafa’is. See: al-Umm (2/75), al-Majmoo’ (6/87) and Badaa’i’ al_Sanaa’i’ (2/74).
They said: because the reason for giving charity is fasting and then breaking the fast, so if one of these two reasons is present it is permissible to hasten it, just as it is permissible to hasten giving the zakaah of one's wealth after taking possession of the nisaab and before one full year has passed.
3 – That it is permissible to give it from the beginning of the year. This is the view of some of the Hanafis and some of the Shaafa’is. They said: because it is zakaah and they likened it to the zakaah of one’s wealth with regard to paying it in advance in all cases.
The most correct view is the first one.
Ibn Qudaamah said in al-Mughni (2/676):
The reason why it is obligatory is the breaking of the fast, which is indicated by the fact that it is mentioned in conjunction with it. The purpose behind it is to make the poor independent of means at a specific time, and it is not permissible to pay it in advance of that time. End quote.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn Saalih al-‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked, as it says in Majmoo’ al-Fataawa (18/zakaat al-fitr/question no. 180):
I paid zakaat al-fitr at the beginning of Ramadaan in Egypt before I came to Makkah, and now I am staying in Makkah al-Mukarramah. Do I have to pay zakaat al-fitr?
He replied:
Yes, you have to pay zakaat al-fitr, because you paid it before its time came. The phrase “zakaat al-fitr” is composed of two words, which explains the reason for the zakaah, which is breaking the fast (fitr).
So zakaat al-fitr is mentioned in conjunction with the fitr (breaking of the fast) because that is the reason for it, and it is known that breaking the fast of Ramadaan occurs only on the last day of Ramadaan, so it is not permissible to pay zakaat al-fitr except when the sun has set on the last day of Ramadaan, except that there is a concession allowing it to be paid one or two days before. Otherwise the proper time for it is after sunset on the last day of Ramadaan, because that is the time when the Ramadaan fast is to be broken. Hence we say that it is better to pay it on the morning of Eid if possible. End quote.
Secondly:
It is permissible to give zakaat al-fitr to a deputy to pay it on your behalf through a charity or trustworthy people etc at the beginning of the month, so long as you stipulate to the deputy that it is to be paid one or two days before Eid, because the proper way of paying it is to give it to poor and needy people who are entitled to it; this is what is mentioned in sharee’ah, that it is limited to one or two days before Eid. Acting as someone’s deputy in paying it comes under the heading of cooperating in righteousness and piety, and there is no time limit for that.
This has been discussed in the answer to question no. 10526.
To conclude: Paying zakaat al-fitr one week before Eid is not valid, and you have to pay it again, unless you gave it to someone whom you delegated to pay it such as a charitable organization that will pay it at the proper time, one or two days before Eid. In that case you have done what is required of you and it is regarded as zakaah that is valid and acceptable in sha Allaah.
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A
What can a woman who is menstruating do on Laylat al-Qadr?
Q) I was wondering what a woman can do on laylat al-qadr if she is menstruating at that time. can she earn extra rewards for engaging herself in worship? if so, what is permissible for her to do so that night?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
A woman who is menstruating may do all acts of worship apart from praying, fasting, circumambulating the Ka’bah and doing i’tikaaf in the mosque.
It was narrated that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to stay up at night during the last ten nights of Ramadaan. Al-Bukhaari (2401) and Muslim (1174) narrated that ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) said: “When the last ten nights of Ramadaan came, the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) would refrain from marital relations, stay up at night and wake his family up.”
Staying up at night is not only for prayer, rather it includes all kinds of acts of worship. This is how the scholars interpreted it.
Al-Haafiz said: “Staying up at night” means staying up to do acts of worship.
Al-Nawawi said: spending the night staying up to pray etc.
He said in ‘Awn al-Ma’bood: i.e., in prayer, dhikr and reciting the Qur’aan.
Praying qiyaam is the best act of worship that a person can do on Laylat al-Qadr. Hence the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever spends the night of Laylat al-Qadr in prayer out of faith and in hope of reward, his previous sins will be forgiven.” (Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 1901; Muslim, 760).
Because the woman who is menstruating is not allowed to pray, she can spend the night in doing other acts of worship apart from prayer, such as:
1- Reading or reciting Qur’aan. See question no. 2564.
2- Dhikr – such as saying Subhaan-Allaah, La ilaaha illa-Allaah, al-Hamdu Lillaah, etc. She can repeat the words “Subhaan-Allaah wa’l-hamdu Lillaah, wa laa ilaaha ill-Allaah, wa Allaahu akbar (Glory be to Allaah, praise be to Allaah, there is no god but Allaah and Allaah is Most Great)” and “Subhaan Allaah wa bi hamdihi, subhaan Allaah il-‘Azeem (Glory and praise be to Allaah, glory be to Allaah the Almighty)” etc.
3- Istighfaar (praying for forgiveness), by repeating the phrase “Astaghfir-Allaah (I ask Allaah for forgiveness).”
4- Du’aa’ (supplication) – she can pray to Allaah and ask Him for what is good in this world and in the Hereafter, for du’aa’ is one of the best acts of worship. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said, “Du’aa’ is ‘ibaadah (worship).” (Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 2895; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi, 2370).
The woman who is menstruating can do these acts of worship and others on Laylat al-Qadr.
We ask Allaah to help us to do that which He loves and which pleases Him. May Allaah accept our righteous deeds.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
A woman who is menstruating may do all acts of worship apart from praying, fasting, circumambulating the Ka’bah and doing i’tikaaf in the mosque.
It was narrated that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to stay up at night during the last ten nights of Ramadaan. Al-Bukhaari (2401) and Muslim (1174) narrated that ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) said: “When the last ten nights of Ramadaan came, the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) would refrain from marital relations, stay up at night and wake his family up.”
Staying up at night is not only for prayer, rather it includes all kinds of acts of worship. This is how the scholars interpreted it.
Al-Haafiz said: “Staying up at night” means staying up to do acts of worship.
Al-Nawawi said: spending the night staying up to pray etc.
He said in ‘Awn al-Ma’bood: i.e., in prayer, dhikr and reciting the Qur’aan.
Praying qiyaam is the best act of worship that a person can do on Laylat al-Qadr. Hence the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever spends the night of Laylat al-Qadr in prayer out of faith and in hope of reward, his previous sins will be forgiven.” (Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 1901; Muslim, 760).
Because the woman who is menstruating is not allowed to pray, she can spend the night in doing other acts of worship apart from prayer, such as:
1- Reading or reciting Qur’aan. See question no. 2564.
2- Dhikr – such as saying Subhaan-Allaah, La ilaaha illa-Allaah, al-Hamdu Lillaah, etc. She can repeat the words “Subhaan-Allaah wa’l-hamdu Lillaah, wa laa ilaaha ill-Allaah, wa Allaahu akbar (Glory be to Allaah, praise be to Allaah, there is no god but Allaah and Allaah is Most Great)” and “Subhaan Allaah wa bi hamdihi, subhaan Allaah il-‘Azeem (Glory and praise be to Allaah, glory be to Allaah the Almighty)” etc.
3- Istighfaar (praying for forgiveness), by repeating the phrase “Astaghfir-Allaah (I ask Allaah for forgiveness).”
4- Du’aa’ (supplication) – she can pray to Allaah and ask Him for what is good in this world and in the Hereafter, for du’aa’ is one of the best acts of worship. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said, “Du’aa’ is ‘ibaadah (worship).” (Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 2895; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi, 2370).
The woman who is menstruating can do these acts of worship and others on Laylat al-Qadr.
We ask Allaah to help us to do that which He loves and which pleases Him. May Allaah accept our righteous deeds.
Islam Q&A
Fasting person using cream to moisturize the lips
Q) What is the ruling on a fasting person using cream to treat dryness of the lips?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
There is nothing wrong with a person using something to moisturize the lips and nose, or wetting them with water or with a cloth and the like. But he must take care to avoid letting any of these moisturizers reach his stomach, but if any of that reaches his stomach without him intending it to, there is no sin on him, just as if he were to rinse his mouth and some water were to reach his stomach without him intending it to, that does not break his fast. End quote.
Fataawa Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 19/224.
A) Praise be to Allaah.
There is nothing wrong with a person using something to moisturize the lips and nose, or wetting them with water or with a cloth and the like. But he must take care to avoid letting any of these moisturizers reach his stomach, but if any of that reaches his stomach without him intending it to, there is no sin on him, just as if he were to rinse his mouth and some water were to reach his stomach without him intending it to, that does not break his fast. End quote.
Fataawa Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 19/224.
Why isn’t the puffer for asthma regarded as breaking the fast?
Q) I would like a detailed answer: why isn’t the puffer that is used by people who have asthma regarded as breaking the fast?
A) Praise be to Allaah.
The puffer is a container in which there is a liquid medicine composed of three things: chemical substances (medical preparation), water and oxygen.
When pressure is applied to the puffer, the medicine comes out in the form of a mist. If the patient takes a deep breath in when applying pressure to the puffer, this mist enters the airway (trachea), but some of it remains in the pharynx, and a very small amount of it may enter the oesophagus.
Some contemporary scholars are of the view that using a puffer invalidates the fast. They said: Because the contents of the puffer may reach the stomach via the mouth, so it breaks the fast.
But most contemporary scholars are of the view that using this puffer does not break the fast, and this view is the correct one. They quoted a number of things as evidence for this:
1. The basic principle is that the fast remains valid, and this fact cannot be altered except when there is certain proof. Whether part of the mist from the puffer reaches the stomach is something uncertain: it may enter the stomach or it may not, because the basic principle is that this substance goes to the respiratory system, but some of it may enter the stomach. With this uncertainty we cannot say that it invalidates the fast. This is the answer to the evidence for the first opinion.
2. Assuming that some of this medicine does actually enter the stomach, it is forgiven, and does not invalidate the fast, by analogy with rinsing the mouth and using the miswaak.
With regard to rinsing the mouth: when the fasting person rinses his mouth, some of that water remains in his mouth, and some of that water may go down to the stomach. Hence if he rinses his mouth with water in which there is a radioactive substance, that radioactive substance will appear in his stomach after a while, which confirms that some of the water used for rinsing the mouth does go down into the stomach. But this part that goes down into the stomach is a very small amount, which is overlooked in sharee’ah. The ruling is that the fast is still valid if one rinses the mouth. The amount of medicine from a puffer that reaches the stomach – if any – is smaller than the amount of water that reaches the stomach when one rinses the mouth, so it is more likely that it does not break the fast.
As for the siwaak, it contains a substance that dissolves in the saliva and goes down into the pharynx, and then to the stomach. But Islam overlooks this, and does not regard it as invalidating the fast, because it is a small amount and is not intentional. Similarly the part that may go down into the stomach from the puffer is small, and the patient does not intend for it to enter the stomach, so it does not break the fast, by analogy with the miswaak.
Thus the strength of the second view is apparent. This is the view favoured by our contemporary scholars: Shaykh ‘Abd al-‘Azeez ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him), Shaykh Muhammad ibn al-‘Uthaymeen, Shaykh ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Jibreen, and the scholars of the Standing Committee. We have quoted some of their fatwas concerning this in the answer to question no. 37650.
See: Majallat al-Fiqh al-Islami (vol. 10, in which there are a number of articles about modern things that break the fast); Muftiraat al-Siyaam al-Mu’aasirah, by Dr. Ahmad al-Khaleel, p. 33-38.
Islam Q&A
A) Praise be to Allaah.
The puffer is a container in which there is a liquid medicine composed of three things: chemical substances (medical preparation), water and oxygen.
When pressure is applied to the puffer, the medicine comes out in the form of a mist. If the patient takes a deep breath in when applying pressure to the puffer, this mist enters the airway (trachea), but some of it remains in the pharynx, and a very small amount of it may enter the oesophagus.
Some contemporary scholars are of the view that using a puffer invalidates the fast. They said: Because the contents of the puffer may reach the stomach via the mouth, so it breaks the fast.
But most contemporary scholars are of the view that using this puffer does not break the fast, and this view is the correct one. They quoted a number of things as evidence for this:
1. The basic principle is that the fast remains valid, and this fact cannot be altered except when there is certain proof. Whether part of the mist from the puffer reaches the stomach is something uncertain: it may enter the stomach or it may not, because the basic principle is that this substance goes to the respiratory system, but some of it may enter the stomach. With this uncertainty we cannot say that it invalidates the fast. This is the answer to the evidence for the first opinion.
2. Assuming that some of this medicine does actually enter the stomach, it is forgiven, and does not invalidate the fast, by analogy with rinsing the mouth and using the miswaak.
With regard to rinsing the mouth: when the fasting person rinses his mouth, some of that water remains in his mouth, and some of that water may go down to the stomach. Hence if he rinses his mouth with water in which there is a radioactive substance, that radioactive substance will appear in his stomach after a while, which confirms that some of the water used for rinsing the mouth does go down into the stomach. But this part that goes down into the stomach is a very small amount, which is overlooked in sharee’ah. The ruling is that the fast is still valid if one rinses the mouth. The amount of medicine from a puffer that reaches the stomach – if any – is smaller than the amount of water that reaches the stomach when one rinses the mouth, so it is more likely that it does not break the fast.
As for the siwaak, it contains a substance that dissolves in the saliva and goes down into the pharynx, and then to the stomach. But Islam overlooks this, and does not regard it as invalidating the fast, because it is a small amount and is not intentional. Similarly the part that may go down into the stomach from the puffer is small, and the patient does not intend for it to enter the stomach, so it does not break the fast, by analogy with the miswaak.
Thus the strength of the second view is apparent. This is the view favoured by our contemporary scholars: Shaykh ‘Abd al-‘Azeez ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him), Shaykh Muhammad ibn al-‘Uthaymeen, Shaykh ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Jibreen, and the scholars of the Standing Committee. We have quoted some of their fatwas concerning this in the answer to question no. 37650.
See: Majallat al-Fiqh al-Islami (vol. 10, in which there are a number of articles about modern things that break the fast); Muftiraat al-Siyaam al-Mu’aasirah, by Dr. Ahmad al-Khaleel, p. 33-38.
Islam Q&A
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